Q&A Hero

Q: When a party to a negotiation suggests a split the difference early in the process _____________. A) they may be seeking a nibble to exploit later B) it may mean they have already received more than they think they deserve C) communicating they are committed to a win-win approach D) a demonstrating joint problem solving

Q: To negotiate in a manner designed primarily to maintain good relations between the parties, irrespective of the outcome of the negotiation, is to focus on a _______________ outcome. A) relationship B) constructive C) primary D) substantive

Q: Striving to end up with a bigger piece of the pie than the other party is to focus on a _______________ outcome. A) related B) constructive C) primary D) substantive

Q: A tactic that involves getting an additional concession or perks after an agreement has been reached is the _______________ approach. A) good-guy/bad-guy B) nibble C) joint problem-solving D) power of competition

Q: What is a positive-sum situation? A) One party gains more than the other B) Each party gains something, without a corresponding loss for the other party C) The losses of both parties result in a net gain for a third party D) A positive result is possible, but negotiations have stalled

Q: Mike goes to the market and haggles for a price that is less than the vendor's cost. This is an example of _______________ negotiating. A) win-lose B) Western C) maximal D) All of the choices can be correct.

Q: If negotiation fails, a conflict often _______________. A) escalates B) dissolves C) resolves on its own D) spreads to other groups

Q: Issues involving _______________ are seen as conflicts over limited resources. A) wages B) benefits C) working conditions D) All of the choices are correct.

Q: Distributive negotiating is also known as _______________ negotiating. A) win-win B) win-lose C) divisible D) low-ball

Q: A lack of conflict ______________. A) is never beneficial B) may prove beneficial in the short term C) is the central goal of the "new" approaches to management D) is considered a "hygiene" factor

Q: Prior to an important decision, your team assigns you the role of critic with the job of uncovering all possible problems with a particular proposal. Your function may be termed as a(n) ______. A) angel B) change advocate C) devil's advocate D) disturbance creator

Q: _______________ conflict is conflict that is deliberately and systematically created, even when no real differences appear to exist. A) Imaginary B) Systemic C) Contrived D) Programmed

Q: Changing the _______________ of the organization not only can help resolve intergroup conflict, it can be an excellent way to create conflict. A) structure B) ethnic makeup C) geographic location D) product line

Q: Members of the United Auto Workers union at the Ford Motor Company, in response to a major downturn in automobile sales and profitability, agreed to caps on overtime and unemployment pay and reductions in wage increases because the survival of the company was threatened. This is an example of _________. A) a bad faith approach by management B) an avoiding approach by the union C) focusing on a superordinate goal D) deceptive management behavior

Q: It is typically best to use a(n) __________ conflict resolution approach in disputes that are of far greater importance to the other group than they are to your group. A) accommodating B) compromising C) dominating D) avoiding

Q: _______________ is a good backup strategy if attempts at problem solving are unsuccessful. A) Accommodating B) Compromising C) Avoiding D) Dominating

Q: You should consider using a _______________ approach when both groups are willing to invest time and effort to reach a resolution that maximizes everyone's outcome. A) dominating B) problem-solving C) avoiding D) compromising

Q: You should use a _______________ approach on important negotiation issues when you are certain you are right. A) dominating B) problem-solving C) avoiding D) compromising

Q: _______________ seeks to resolve conflict by placing maximum focus on both groups' concerns. A) Accommodating B) Compromising C) Avoiding D) Problem solving or collaboration

Q: A(n) _______________ party places maximum emphasis on meeting the needs of the other group, while minimizing its own concerns. A) accommodating B) compromising C) avoiding D) dominating

Q: One group may hold the most power because it _______________. A) is higher up in the organizational hierarchy B) controls critical resources C) has allied with other groups D) Any or all of the choices are correct.

Q: Conflict tends to ____________ negative stereotypes. A) increase B) decrease C) balance D) reinforce

Q: Communications between groups in conflict usually _______________. A) increase B) are strictly task focused C) remain the same D) break down

Q: When a group is engaged in intergroup conflict, _______________. A) cohesion tends to increase B) democratic methods of leadership are likely to become less popular C) it is not unusual for groups to overconform to group norms D) All of the above are correct

Q: When a group is engaged in intergroup conflict, its cohesion tends to _______________. A) decrease B) remain the same C) increase D) Conflict has no effect on cohesion.

Q: When a group is in conflict, it becomes _______ task-oriented. A) less B) nominally C) more D) adversely

Q: Status incongruence conflicts are often created by _______________. A) personalities B) work patterns C) time goals D) quotas

Q: Inaccurate _______________ often cause one group to develop stereotypes about other groups. A) perceptions B) negotiations C) directions D) priorities

Q: A traditional assembly line would most likely create a high degree of ___________ interdependence. A) Pooled B) Reciprocal C) Sequential D) All of the choices are correct.

Q: In the Big City track meet, runners from five schools compete in separate events. Individual runners are awarded points based on the place (1 st, 2 nd, and 3 rd) they finish in their race, and these points are totaled to determine which school wins the meet. What type of interdependence would best describe this situation? A) Pooled B) Reciprocal C) Sequential D) Team

Q: The relationships that exist between the anesthesiology staff, nursing staff, technician staff, and surgeons in a hospital operating room is an example of _____________. A) pooled interdependence B) sequential interdependence C) reciprocal interdependence D) functional conflict

Q: _______________ interdependence requires one group to complete its task before another group can complete its task. A) Pooled B) Sequential C) Reciprocal D) Dysfunctional

Q: The conflict potential in _______________ is relatively low. A) pooled interdependence B) sequential interdependence C) reciprocal interdependence D) dysfunctional interdependence

Q: All of the following are types of group interdependence except: A) Pooled B) Circular C) Sequential D) Reciprocal

Q: ________ interdependence requires no interaction among groups. A) Nominal B) Virtual C) Pooled D) None of the above.

Q: The tendency for every group to be at least partially in conflict with every other group with which it interacts is known as "the law of _______________ conflict." A) systematic B) interorganizational C) interpersonal D) random

Q: In most cases, the point at which functional conflict becomes dysfunctional is ____________. A) common across organizations B) known as the transition point C) impossible to identify precisely D) All of the above.

Q: Giving teams the leeway to develop their own work procedures can help promote their success. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Highly cohesive formal groups may, by definition, also be cross classified as "friendship" groups. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: While there are issues regarding conforming to national culture, SMTs are currently taken to be the universally most effective form of organization. They have been successful in virtually every organization that has implemented them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Some researchers believe that the "go/no go" decision to launch the doomed space shuttle Challenger was influenced by groupthink. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: It is possible to have low group cohesiveness even when the member's goals agree with those of the formal organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: In general, as the cohesiveness of a work group increases, the level of conformity to group norms decreases. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: The term "groupthink" was coined to communicate a highly effective group that thinks as one mind. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: By definition a "formal" groups are created to facilitate the accomplishment of an organization's goals and as such, they always have an organizationally sanctioned formal leader. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: The degree of conformity with group norms can be influenced by cultural factors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: As it expected in a society in general, cultures with a more collective tradition may place less emphasis on the group and on conformity with norms than might cultures with a more individualistic orientation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Authoritarian personality types conform less to group norms than do non-authoritarians. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Research indicates that persons of high intelligence are more likely to conform to group norms than less intelligent individuals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Group norms must be formally stated in order to be known by all group members. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Group norms are formed only with respect to things that have significance for the group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: The enacted role is the set of behaviors that a person in a position believes he or she should enact. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: All else being equal, homogenous groups are less likely to be cohesive than heterogeneous ones. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Factors that may influence the pattern of group development include the environment in which the group operates and group members' awareness of time and deadlines. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: It is essential that conflict is suppressed during the storming stage. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: In many cases, groups form because individuals believe they can derive greater economic benefits from their jobs if they organize. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Proximity makes it easier to determine areas of common attraction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: The objectives of interest groups are closely related to those of the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: The authority relationship between a senior nurse and her subordinates is an example of a task group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: If there is no common goal or purpose, there is no group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: The interaction between group members must include face-to-face verbal exchanges. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: While teams share a culture, a set of rituals and processes, typically they do not share a philosophy in working together. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: What is a cross functional team?

Q: How are teams classified?

Q: What is the relationship between cohesiveness of a work group and conformity to group norms?

Q: Why do groups have norms?

Q: What are norms?

Q: How is status assigned to a position?

Q: What is the relationship between group composition and performance?

Q: Why is it important to understand the group development process?

Q: List the stages of group development.

Q: Proximity and attraction are two reasons people form groups. How are the two related?

Q: How can groups satisfy esteem needs?

Q: What does "proximity" mean, as it relates to groups and teams?

Q: What is an "informal" group? Provide a school example of such a group.

Q: Name the three minimum requirements that must be met for a group to exist.

Q: The reward system in most organizations is _______________ based. A) seniority B) sales C) individually D) team

Q: Sometimes teams are given too much authority. This is particularly dangerous in the _______________ stages of team involvement. A) early B) mature C) late D) All of the above

Q: Research indicates that all of the following skills are highly desirable if team members are to be effective except: A) An inquisitive nature B) Open-mindedness C) Communication skills D) Conflict resolution skills

Q: According to the text, perhaps the most important characteristic of a good team member is _______________. A) being open-minded B) having emotional stability C) having trust D) having good conflict resolution skills