Q&A Hero

Q: The Delphi technique has the advantage of having several _______________ while removing the biasing effects that might occur during face-to-face interaction. A) "Delphs" B) possible solutions C) communication methods D) judges

Q: The tendency of people in a team to not work as hard mentally or physically as they would alone is called _______________. A) downward norm setting B) conformity C) idea production blocking D) social loafing

Q: _______________ includes a strict series of rules by which participants must abide. A) The Philadelphia process B) The normal group technique C) Brainstorming D) The IM process

Q: _______________ occurs when a team member has to wait for his/her turn to provide an idea that contributes to a brainstorming session. A) Social loafing B) Conformity C) Idea production blocking D) Downward norm setting

Q: _______________ creative potential. A) Groups have the most B) Individuals have the most C) Groups and individuals are equal in D) The youngest members of a group have

Q: Creative decision makers have been found to have all of the following characteristics in common except: A) Type C personalities B) Perseverance C) Risk-taking propensity D) Tolerance of ambiguity

Q: _______________ thinking is a process of generating novel ways to solve problems faced by an individual or group. A) Bilateral B) Lateral C) Diagonal D) Horizontal

Q: As we move from "individual" to "consensus" decisions, the _______________ of the decision typically improves. A) quality B) implementation C) cost savings D) simplicity

Q: In solution selection, group interaction and the achievement of consensus usually results in the acceptance of more _______________ than would be accepted by an individual decision maker. A) risk B) novelty C) accountability D) innovation

Q: When it comes to evaluating alternative solutions, _______________ make superior judgments. A) individuals B) groups C) neither individuals nor groups D) both individuals and groups

Q: Research has shown that consensus decisions with five or more participants are superior to _______________. A) individual decision making B) majority vote C) leader decisions D) All of the choices are correct.

Q: The success of the Green Berets is determined by their ability to collectively and creatively implement solutions to _______________ situations. A) training B) novel C) repetitive D) every day

Q: Groups usually require _______________ to make decisions, compared to individuals. A) more time B) less time C) the same amount of time D) None of the above, there is no relation between decision time and groups

Q: In high power-distance cultures such as India, decisions are made at the _______ level of the organization. A) highest B) middle C) lowest D) None of the above. Power-distance is not related to organizational decision-making.

Q: Decision makers who _______________ are likely to be candidates for escalation of decision making. A) are unclear of their goals B) have a fear of failure C) work in a culture of low trust D) Any or All of the choices are correct.

Q: Gamblers who place larger and larger wagers in an effort to recoup earlier losses are displaying a decision-making behavior called _______________. A) reverse pyramiding B) load balancing C) escalation of commitment D) stacking the deck

Q: The potential for dissonance is influenced by _______________. A) the ability to be persuaded B) personality C) self-confidence D) All of the choices are correct.

Q: Which of the following the following is a method to reduce dissonance? A) Seek information that supports the wisdom of their decision. B) Selectively perceive (distort) information in a way that supports their decision. C) Minimize the importance of the negative aspects of the decision and exaggerate the importance of the positive aspects. D) All of the choices are correct.

Q: The consequences of decisions that deal with _______________ leave leaders particularly susceptible to cognitive dissonance. A) life and death B) money C) layoffs D) hiring

Q: According to the text, all of the following contribute to decision-making anxiety except: A) The decision is psychologically or financially important B) There are a number of alternatives C) The alternatives have many favorable features D) One of the alternatives has been successful in the past

Q: Dissonance is often _______________ by admitting that a mistake has been made. A) increased B) reduced C) unaffected D) completely resolved

Q: Asking "If this decision was published in the newspaper, would the reader consider the decision ethical?" is subjecting a decision to a(n) _______________ test. A) ethics B) morality C) sunshine D) publicity

Q: Many decisions have an ethical dimension that requires all of the following except: A) Thought B) Reflection C) Caution D) Confession

Q: In the context of decision making, ______ can be thought of as the guidelines a person uses when confronted with a situation in which a choice must be made. They are acquired early in life and are a basic (often taken-for-granted) part of an individual's thoughts. A) heuristics B) values C) likings D) conventions

Q: In _______________, it is necessary to make value judgments regarding the selection of opportunities and the assignment of priorities. A) establishing objectives B) developing alternatives C) choosing an alternative D) the evaluation and control phase

Q: Heidrick & Struggles identified all of the following traits that can sabotage an executive's approach to decision making except: A) angst B) intellectualizing C) overconfidence D) paralysis

Q: The administrative decision-making model incorporates which of the following concepts? A) optimizing B) satisfying C) unbounded alternative generation D) Both B and C are correct.

Q: Intuitive decision making occurs due to all of the following except: A) High levels of uncertainty B) Having no history or past experience to draw upon C) A lack of time pressure D) An excessive number of alternatives

Q: Intuitive decision making is likely to take place under all of the following conditions except: A) The environment is chaotic B) The situation is changing rapidly C) There is a history or past experience to draw upon D) There is intense pressure to come up with a solution

Q: An intuitive decision maker uses _______________ to process information, data, and the environment or to address a problem or solution. A) experience B) self-confidence C) self-motivation D) All of the choices are correct.

Q: __________ offered a descriptive approach that has described as the administrative decision-making model. A) Drucker B) Smith and Howell C) March and Simon D) I.H. Caffie

Q: In the bounded rationality approach, all of the following assumptions are made except: A) The consequences of alternative decisions can be predicted B) Decision makers rarely have all the information they need or want C) The organization's goals constrain decision making D) Conflicting goals can force a compromise solution

Q: A _____________ is an appointed critic of proposed group actions whose role is to uncover underlying issues with the prevailing direction of the group. A) "detail devil" B) "decision devil" C) "devil's advocate" D) "decision advocate"

Q: Under conditions of uncertainty, the decision maker has ____________ of the probability of the outcome of _____ alternative(s). A) absolutely no knowledge; each B) absolutely no knowledge; most C) partial knowledge; each D) partial knowledge; of a portion of the

Q: Certainty is possible in most decision-making _______________. A) at home B) at work C) in the stock market D) None of the choices are correct.

Q: As it pertains to choosing a solution, the alternative-outcome relationship is based on all of the following conditions except: A) Certainty B) Uncertainty C) Risk D) Cost

Q: When determining problem significance, urgency _____________. A) relates to impact B) relates to time C) refers to potential for negative outcomes D) All of the above.

Q: _______________ describes the seriousness of a problem's effects. A) Impact B) Urgency C) Immediacy D) Growth tendency

Q: Determining problem significance involves consideration of all of the following except: A) Urgency B) Similarity to previous problems C) Impact D) Growth tendency

Q: ___________ problems present themselves and must be attended to by the managers. A) Crisis but not routine B) Crisis and routine C) Crisis and opportunity D) Crisis, opportunity and routine

Q: Problems usually are of three types. Which of the following is not one of those types? A) Opportunity B) Crisis C) Routine D) Recurring

Q: The last step in the rational decision-making process is _____________. A) alternative selection B) implementation C) follow-up and evaluation D) communication of decision

Q: The first step in the rational decision-making process is _____________. A) problem identification B) establishing specific goals and objectives C) development of alternatives D) problem cognition

Q: A necessary condition for a decision is _______________. A) a resource scarcity B) an organizational need C) self-confidence D) a problem

Q: Problems typically result from a determination that a discrepancy exists between current reality and _______________. A) prior reality B) future reality C) a desired state D) an optimum state

Q: Which of the following is the best example of a programmed decision? A) Procedure for admitting patients B) Diversification into new products and markets C) Deciding how to clean up after a flood D) Construction of new classroom facilities

Q: Periodic reordering of inventory to maintain preset levels would be classified as which of the following decision types? A) Nominal B) Nuanced C) Programmed D) Process

Q: All of the following apply to non-programmed decisions except: A) Necessity for creativity or intuition B) Repetitive C) Tolerance for ambiguity D) Purchase of experimental equipment

Q: What are the basic differences between Delphi technique and NGT? Provide examples when each method may be effective in promoting improved decision making.

Q: Identify three specific techniques for stimulating creativity. Which one of these techniques is best?

Q: Compare individual and group decision making. What are some of the positives and negatives of each approach?

Q: Many individuals are reluctant to admit that they have made a wrong decision. List some of the methods that these individuals might use to reduce their dissonance.

Q: What are four of the most cited reasons why decision makers still make unethical choices? Which of these do you believe presents the strongest motivator to act unethically?

Q: Describe the influence of values on the decision-making process.

Q: Explain the role of behavioral influences on decision making.

Q: Describe the conditions governing alternative-outcome relationships.

Q: Discuss the elements of a problem that should be considered in determining its significance.

Q: Identify the steps in the decision-making process.

Q: What is the difference between programmed decisions and nonprogrammed decisions? Give an example of each.

Q: An employee verbally states he is doing great, but his posture and facial expressions seem to say something else. Do you think he is actually doing great?

Q: What is "noise" and when in the communication process does it occur?

Q: Why is two-way communication typically preferred over one-way communication?

Q: Name five mediums that organizations use to provide information to members.

Q: What are the basic elements of the communications model?

Q: _______________ is the ability to put oneself in the other person's role and to assume that individual's viewpoints and emotions. A) Sympathy B) Transference C) Empathy D) All of the choices are correct.

Q: Kreps postulates ______ broad principles applicable to internal organizational communications. A) two B) three C) four D) five

Q: At least _____ percent of the gossip that travels through the grapevine is said to be true. A) 15 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75

Q: The grapevine transmits information ______. A) slowly B) at the same rate as formal means C) rapidly D) deliberately

Q: ________ means refraining from doing harm. A) Following the hypocrite oath B) Malfeasance C) Non-malfeasance D) Walther's Law

Q: Complex language has been identified as _____________ to effective communication. A) a major barrier B) a minor hindrance C) having no relation to D) beneficial to

Q: Value judgments are made by the receiver _______________. A) in communication situations prior to the establishment of trust B) in communication situations between parties of different backgrounds C) in most communication situation D) in every communication situation

Q: The exception principle of management states that _______________. A) face-to-face communication should be avoided whenever possible B) all issues should be presented to managers except in cases of dire emergency C) managers should only be communicated with on matters of exception D) All of the choices are correct.

Q: Managers striving to become better communicators must first improve their: A) Messages B) Methods C) Media D) Position in the organization

Q: Although estimates vary, approximately 2.3 billion spam messages are sent in the United States a(n) ________. A) hour B) day C) month D) year

Q: The result of a communication _______________ is that someone is left out of the formal channel of communication who would normally be included. A) short-circuit B) mismatch C) glitch D) loop-back

Q: Filtering of information is likely to occur when employees are communicating information to an _______________ superior. A) impatient B) aggressive C) intimidating D) All of the choices are correct.

Q: The level of _______________ that the receiver assigns to the communicator directly affects how the receiver views and reacts to the words, ideas, and actions of the communicator. A) credibility B) intensity C) respect D) moderation

Q: _______________ refers to the manipulation of information so that the receiver perceives it as positive. A) Layering B) Posturing C) Shading D) Filtering

Q: Which of the following is an example of very low richness? A) Emailing the yearly holiday schedule to all employees B) Leaving voice-mail C) Asking your supervisor for a raise D) Interviewing for a sale position

Q: Videoconferencing with virtual team members is an example of: A) Very high richness B) High richness C) Low richness D) Very low richness