Q&A Hero

Q: According to the Hersey-Blanchard situational leadership model, explaining decisions and providing an opportunity for clarification is: A) Participating B) Delegating C) Selling D) Telling

Q: Mike has demonstrated a high level of capability and motivation concerning a particular task. According to SLT, which of the following leadership styles would fit best Mike's "readiness" to complete the task? A) Telling B) Delegating C) Empowering D) Selling

Q: Which of the following is not one of the leadership styles developed by Hersey and Blanchard? A) Supporting B) Telling C) Delegating D) Participating

Q: Within SLT, there are two types of follower readiness: psychological and _______________. A) individual B) physiological C) group D) job

Q: The emphasis of _______________ is on followers and their level of maturity. A) the goal-path model B) the Jago leadership model C) situational leadership theory D) trait theory

Q: The _______________ theory of leadership advocates that leaders understand their own behavior. A) job-centered B) employee-centered C) initiating D) situational

Q: It has been argued that an important part of the leader's job is to clarify for subordinates the kind of behavior most likely to result in goal accomplishment. This activity is referred to as ____________. A) path clarification B) pathing C) clarification D) "telling"

Q: If an employee has a high the degree of perceived ability relative to the task demands, he or she would be the least likely to accept a(n) _______________ leadership style. A) consultative B) directive C) participative D) selling

Q: Two types of situational or contingency variables are considered in the path-goal theory: the personal characteristics of subordinates and _______________. A) financial pressures and demands B) availability of resources C) environmental pressures and demands D) time constraints

Q: Early path-goal work led to development of a theory involving all of the following types of leader behavior except: A) Directive B) Dictatorial C) Supportive D) Participative

Q: Making decisions without input from your subordinates, or securing input from subordinates and then making the decision yourself, represents the _______________ style of decision-making. A) consultative B) group C) delegated D) autocratic

Q: Individual decision situations are those where the solution affects only one of the leader's: A) Followers B) Groups C) Goals D) All of the choices are correct.

Q: The _______________ leadership model makes a distinction between two types of decision situations facing leaders: individual and group. A) Vroom-Jago B) Fiedler contingency C) path-goal D) Hersey-Blanchard situational

Q: Selection of the appropriate decision-making process involves considering two criteria of decision effectiveness: decision quality and subordinate _______________. A) commitment B) personality C) education D) intelligence

Q: Leader-member relations can typically be modified through all of the following except: A) Volunteering to direct difficult or troublesome subordinates B) Bringing new or unusual tasks or problems to the unit C) Transferring particular subordinates out of the unit D) Requesting particular people for work in the group

Q: A situation with _______________ calls for a task-oriented leadership style. A) good leader-member relations, high task structure, and strong position power B) good leader-member relations, low task structure, and weak position power C) poor leader-member relations, high task structure, and strong position power D) poor leader-member relations, low task structure, and strong position power

Q: The _______________ model of leadership postulates that the performance of groups is dependent on the interaction between leadership style and situational favorableness. A) job-centered B) contingency C) initiating D) situational

Q: Fielder believes that a leader's style, whether relationship- or task-oriented, is: A) Fixed or enduring B) Undefined C) Flexible and ever-changing D) Temporary

Q: Trait and behavioral approaches fail to take into account the interaction between and among people, tasks, and _______________. A) environments B) costs C) objectives D) skills

Q: All of the following are typically thought of as important variables with which every leader must deal except: A) People B) Tasks C) The environment D) Rebellion

Q: Initiating structure designates behavior in which the leader _______________. A) organizes and defines the relationships in the group B) establishes well-defined patterns and channels of communication C) spells out ways of getting the job done D) All of the choices are correct.

Q: The _________________ leader focuses on the people doing the work and believes in delegating decision making and aiding employees in satisfying their needs by creating a supportive work environment. A) centered B) employee-centered C) employee-oriented D) engaged

Q: Edwin Ghiselli found that people who exhibited _______________ were the most effective leaders. A) adaptability B) individuality C) decisiveness D) creativity

Q: The belief that a person must be physically large to secure compliance from followers relies heavily on the notion of _______________. A) charisma B) coercive power C) adaptability D) self-confidence

Q: The thinking and discussion of leadership has evolved over the years from a trait-based approach to the concept of _______________. A) leaders without borders B) workers without leaders C) teams without bosses D) None of the above.

Q: Every successful team has _______________. A) a problem oriented culture B) an innovative mindset C) an external incentive D) a leader

Q: Warren Bennis, who has devoted decades to researching leadership issues, concludes that virtually all leaders of effective groups share all of the following characteristics except: A) They provide direction and meaning to the people they lead B) They generate trust C) They avoid risk taking D) They are purveyors of hope

Q: No one has _______________ control over resources, even leaders at the highest levels. A) unilateral B) vertical C) horizontal D) lateral

Q: Congratulations! You have just been named director of your organization's new effort to produce athletic shoes. You will be working with your corporate office in New York for designs, a German subsidiary for wearable technology development, a Chinese firm for textile development and an Indonesian company for manufacturing. What may make managing this, or for that matter any global joint ventures difficult?

Q: Based upon your performance in this class you have been recruited to be VP of organizational development at MajorGlobal Industries! Your CEO is a firm believer in participative leadership and pronounces it should be rolled out to all global subsidiaries "with due haste." Turning to you the CEO asks "Do you see any issues?" How do you respond regarding the potential of participative management working equally well around the world?

Q: Doug Blevins was born with cerebral palsy and has never walked, and yet he managed to become the kicking coach for the Miami Dolphins by using his exceptional observational and coaching skills. List four of the hints that he gives on how to be a good coach.

Q: What is the origin and essence of SLT?

Q: Identify five or more of the questions that Vroom indicates should be asked when performing a situational diagnosis.

Q: Explain what situational approaches to leadership are and describe the most significant approaches within this perspective.

Q: Describe two major behavior approaches to leadership.

Q: Sal, a peer manager, approaches you and commends you on your ability to use an employee-centered approach to leadership. Sal then asks "What can I do to be more employee-centered in my leadership?" Identify four actions that Sal, or for that matter any manager, can take to increase their employee-centered behavior.

Q: How is intelligence related to leadership?

Q: Discuss the trait approach to leadership.

Q: Define the term leadership.

Q: The nominal group technique compares anonymous judgments on a topic through a series of sequential questionnaires. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Team- or group-based decision-making is especially good for nonprogrammed problems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: In some countries, it is inappropriate for senior executives to consult subordinates before making a decision. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Escalation of commitment is typically caused by a need to turn a poor decision into a winning decision. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: What kind of risk taker you are and your potential for anxiety following a decision are very closely related. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Most decision makers are very similar in their willingness to take risk. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: To a large extent, a decision maker's willingness to make ethical or unethical decisions will be influenced by his or her values. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Decisions are typically made without the benefit of perfect information and unlimited time to search for and evaluate alternative solutions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: There is some degree of "satisfying" in almost all decisions that people make. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: It is not necessary to reactivate the entire decision-making process if the original objective is revised. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: As decision implementation typically involves people, the test of the soundness of a decision is the behavior of the people involved relative to the decision. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Two objectives can typically be optimized simultaneously. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: The decision itself is always more important than the implementation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: A poor implementation will have no effect on a good decision. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: In managerial decision making, optimal solutions are always possible. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Typically, once a group determines they have found a "perfect" solution, a "devil's advocate" need not be appointed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Group decision-making outcomes are typically improved by merging the identifying solutions and problem identification processes into one activity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Gathering information and/or studying a situation can help a decision maker reduce the degree of uncertainty in decision-making. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Decision makers should allow previously established goals and objectives to guide their decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: When a "good" decision is identified immediately, alternatives do not need to be developed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: A problem with low urgency and little impact will not grow if left unattended. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Defining problems in terms of solutions is really a form of jumping to conclusions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Every decision is the outcome of a static process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: Problems can be expected to arise in organizations where top management expends too much time and effort on nonprogrammed decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: The management of most organizations faces primarily nonprogrammed decisions during daily operations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Q: What is the advantage of the Delphi technique?

Q: What are the three basic rules of brainstorming?

Q: Why may nonprogrammed decisions be more suited for group rather than individual decision-making?

Q: What characteristic or situations may make individuals likely to be candidates for escalation of decision making?

Q: How do values impact the establishment of objectives?

Q: What does the intuitive decision maker use to address problems or opportunities?

Q: What are the basic assumptions of the bounded rationality approach to decision-making?

Q: Why would an organization consider appointing a "devil's advocate"?

Q: What does risk mean in the context of the alternative-outcome relationship?

Q: When does an uncertain situation exist?

Q: Problems usually are of three types; what are they?

Q: How can an organization focus management attention away from crises and routine problems and toward longer-range issues?

Q: What should you measure to determine how critical a problem is for the organization?

Q: Provide an example of a nonprogrammed secession that may face a university.

Q: All of the following are techniques for stimulating creativity except: A) Brainstorming B) Delphi technique C) Nominal group technique D) Downward norm setting

Q: The nominal group technique employs all of the following except: A) A structured group meeting B) Verbal brainstorming C) One person who acts as the recorder D) Group voting on or ranking of ideas