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Human Resource
Q:
Zahra is an employee at Colorz Inc. She loves gossiping about her colleagues during office hours, which causes her to receive a reprimand by her supervisor. A few days later, the same supervisor fires Gunther, another subordinate, from work for a similar reason. The employees reporting to this supervisor are most likely to conclude the supervisor demonstrates a lack of _____ in dealing with employees who gossip at work.
A. benchmarking
B. interactional justice
C. laissez faire
D. outcome fairness
E. arbitration
Q:
Franco, an employee at Fundz Corp., arrives late at the office on a Monday morning due to a personal emergency. His manager fires him, although this was the first instance of Franco arriving late at work. In this scenario, Franco would conclude a lack of _____ in dealing with employees who arrive late at work.
A. arbitration
B. laissez faire
C. outcome fairness
D. benchmarking
E. interactional justice
Q:
People's perception of _____ depends on their judgment that the consequences of a decision to employees are just.
A. employment at will
B. procedural justice
C. interactional justice
D. arbitration
E. outcome fairness
Q:
Talent poaching makes it difficult for companies to _____.
A. retain their top performers
B. keep their searches discreet
C. search for relevant information
D. eliminate quality control processes
E. look for employee profiles
Q:
Retaining top performers is not always easy because _____ for high-demand positions, such as software engineers, from other companies has become the norm.
A. brainstorming
B. poaching talent
C. mind mapping
D. headhunting
E. reverse discriminating
Q:
Holly refuses her employer's request to falsify the contents of a report to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC). The employer subsequently discharges Holly for "not following orders." Identify the exception to the employment-at-will doctrine that Holly is likely to choose when she files a wrongful discharge suit.
A. Equal employment
B. Public policy
C. Implied contract
D. Reverse discrimination
E. Affirmative action
Q:
Jarvis, a manager at Livingston Corp., believes that he can fire Yolanda, his subordinate, at any time he wishes to do so. Which of the following, if true, would help strengthen Jarvis' belief?
A. Yolanda has not submitted her required paperwork as part of her job offer.
B. Jarvis has not provided Yolanda with an offer letter.
C. Yolanda is an underperformer and fails to arrive at work on time.
D. Yolanda does not have a specific employment contract with the company.
E. Yolanda has not received a letter of employment from the company.
Q:
Historically, if an organization and employee do not have a specific employment contract, the employer or employee may not require a specific time to end the employment relationship. This is referred to as the _____ doctrine.
A. force majeure
B. laissez faire
C. employment-at-will
D. due process
E. implied in fact
Q:
Which of the following situations is an example of a voluntary turnover?
A. Clara, a supervisor at Green Xpress LLC, is demoted from her current position
B. Samuel, a manager at Travellerz Co., is suspended for a month due to drug use
C. Fatima, an employee at Flora Inc., is about to resign her job to start her own business
D. Alex, a trainee at RandomWorks Inc., is reprimanded for arriving late at work every day
E. Carissa, an employee at Beta Corp., is transferred to another city for career growth
Q:
Zohrina is a top manager at her current company. However, she is leaving the company for a better job at a competing firm. Which of the following forms of turnover is illustrated in this scenario?
A. Involuntary turnover
B. External turnover
C. Voluntary turnover
D. Internal turnover
E. Dysfunctional turnover
Q:
Which of the following situations is an example of involuntary turnover?
A. Jia, an employee at DotPrint, is suspended for a week because of workplace violence
B. Natasha, a supervisor at JBX Inc., decides to leave her job because she is moving to another country
C. Hector, a manager at EuroCare Co., resigns from his job because he has a better job offer from another company
D. Ming, an employee at FantaFurnish Corp., wants to leave her job to pursue a college degree
E. Gizela, an employee at Future Tech Inc., is fired because of theft
Q:
When employees initiate a turnover, when the organization would prefer to keep them, it is called _____ turnover.
A. dysfunctional
B. involuntary
C. retentive
D. external
E. voluntary
Q:
More than 40% of the employees at Valley Corp. lost their jobs during a recent recession. The human resource department of Valley Corp. would term this as a _____.
A. role ambiguity
B. voluntary turnover
C. role conflict
D. involuntary turnover
E. role overload
Q:
Bella, an employee at Lavender Holdings, was suspended for two weeks for drug use. Six months later, she was fired from the job because her productivity did not show any improvement even after undergoing treatment for drug use. Which of the following is the form of discharge experienced by Bella?
A. Involuntary turnover
B. Voluntary turnover
C. Procedural justice
D. Progressive discipline
E. Open-door policy
Q:
Terminating an employee for the use of illegal drugs is an example of a(n) _____ turnover.
A. retentive
B. external
C. voluntary
D. absenteeism
E. involuntary
Q:
Karl, an employee at BizVentures Inc., is known for his short-tempered and argumentative nature. During a heated exchange at work one day, Karl makes a derogatory gesture toward his manager, which causes Karl to be fired. This scenario is an example of:
A. revolving door policy.
B. open-door policy.
C. voluntary turnover.
D. progressive discipline.
E. involuntary turnover.
Q:
HR professionals can help make exit interviews more successful by arranging for the departing employee to talk to his or her supervisor.
Q:
The Job Descriptive Index is an example of a job satisfaction instrument.
Q:
Job satisfaction of employees remains unaffected from organizational changes such as mergers.
Q:
The two primary sets of people in an organization who most affect job satisfaction are co-workers and supervisors.
Q:
To help employees manage role conflict, employers have sought a number of family-friendly policies.
Q:
Job satisfaction is always based on an objective and complete measurement of the situation and not on perception.
Q:
Job involvement is a judgment that the organization carried out its actions in a way that took the employee's feelings into account.
Q:
If an employee disputes policies on the grounds that they violate state and federal laws, he or she can go outside the organization for help to file a lawsuit.
Q:
Role conflict is uncertainty about what the organization and others expect from the employee in terms of what to do or how to do it.
Q:
When employees are unclear about work methods, scheduling, and performance criteria because others hold different ideas about these, they are likely to suffer from role ambiguity.
Q:
Core self-evaluation refers to pervasive low levels of satisfaction in all aspects of life, compared with other people's feelings.
Q:
Job withdrawal is a set of behaviors that discontent individuals display to avoid the work situation physically, mentally, or emotionally.
Q:
The availability of outplacement counseling while an employee is being encouraged to leave the organization, promotes a sense of fairness on discharge.
Q:
Since arbitration is a formal process involving an outsider, it is much slower and tedious than a law suit.
Q:
Developing a formal discipline process is a prime responsibility of the human resource department.
Q:
The principles of justice convey that the organization must prepare for problems by establishing a formal discipline process in which the consequences become severe if the employee repeats the offense.
Q:
In general, employers may conduct random searches of areas like desks, lockers, and toolboxes at any point in time without any justification to the employee.
Q:
A disciplinary action meets the standards of outcome fairness if the manager explains to the employee how the action is procedurally just, treats the employee with dignity and respect, and empathizes with the employee's feelings.
Q:
In procedural justice, the procedures should be consistent from one person to another, and the manager using them should suppress any personal biases.
Q:
Outcome fairness involves the ends of a discipline process, while procedural and interactional justice focus on the means to those ends.
Q:
Employees can sue employers for wrongful discharge only if the employee was contracted under the employment-at-will doctrine.
Q:
Generally, organizations encourage voluntary turnover among top performers because it is inexpensive.
Q:
Briefly describe exit interviews.
Q:
What is job satisfaction? Describe the components of job satisfaction.
Q:
Discuss the legal requirements that must be met by employers to avoid wrongful discharge.
Q:
_____ can uncover reasons why employees leave and perhaps set the stage for some of them to return.
A. Mock interviews
B. Job Descriptive Indices
C. Pay satisfaction questionnaires
D. Exit interviews
E. Summary dismissals
Q:
A(n) _____ refers to the meeting of a departing employee with the employee's supervisor and/or a human resource specialist to discuss the employee's reasons for leaving.
A. exit interview
B. affirmative action
C. carve-out
D. observation interview
E. summary dismissal
Q:
Which of the following aspects of satisfaction is emphasized by the Job Descriptive Index?
A. Outplacements
B. Promotions
C. Skills
D. Customers
E. Qualifications
Q:
Maria is the supervisor of the recruiting department at Innovex Inc. She is currently in charge of filling a few high-demand positions at Innovex and is planning to poach talent from rival companies, luring their employees with job benefits. Hassan, the HR head of Innovex, however, argues that Maria's plan will not work. Which of the following is most likely to strengthen Hassan's argument?
A. The candidates have very low self-worth
B. Maria assures the candidates that they will receive a company car
C. Innovex Inc. offers the candidates more vacation time than their current employer
D. Innovex Inc. offers the candidates better health insurance than their current employer
E. The candidates are looking for higher pay, not better benefits
Q:
Mark, an employee at Timber Holdings, decides to leave the company. However, during his exit interview, an HR supervisor figures out that Mark had no complaints about his role and designation. Which of the following instances is most likely to cause Mark's job dissatisfaction that is severe enough to lead to his departure?
A. Timber Holdings was trying to invest more on research and development for its upcoming products
B. Mark was brought together with other employees from different functional units to work on a team to develop a new product
C. Mark experienced uncivil behavior from his co-workers, which was not addressed by management
D. Mark's co-workers were unclear about his work methods, scheduling, and performance criteria
E. Timber Holdings had downsized recently, and employees' work underwent quality checks
Q:
The two types of people in the organization who most affect an individual's job satisfaction are:
A. subordinates and supervisors.
B. supervisors and family members.
C. co-workers and subordinates.
D. supervisors and co-workers.
E. supervisors and upper-level managers.
Q:
Serena is concerned about an unacceptable level of job dissatisfaction among a number of work teams in her organization. She has determined that the primary cause of the dissatisfaction is the uncertainty that exists among employees regarding what is expected of them. Based on this limited information, the most appropriate intervention would be:
A. factor comparison.
B. role analysis technique.
C. job rotation.
D. role carve-out.
E. progressive discipline.
Q:
The _____ is a process of formally identifying expectations associated with a role.
A. role playing method
B. role analysis technique
C. role carve-out
D. role enrichment
E. role overload
Q:
In the role analysis technique, the people who directly interact with the person who is filling a new role is referred to as the person's:
A. role occupants.
B. role managers.
C. role set.
D. role sitters.
E. benchmarkers.
Q:
In the role analysis technique, role occupant refers to:
A. the person who is hiring the employee for a particular role in the organization.
B. the employee who fills a role in the organization.
C. the individual who will directly interact with the employee filling a new role in the organization.
D. the individual who has written guidelines for a new role in the organization.
E. the employee who is assigned the task to write expectations from a new role in the organization.
Q:
The group's maintenance roles are the things group members do and say that directly aid in the accomplishment of its objectives.
Q:
Georgia, the learning and development manager at StudyWell Inc., believes that in addition to providing superior benefits to employees, it is important to create an environment in which they also have access to the firm's large learning database. She suggests that employees take time out of their workday to research relevant topics and conduct seminars to share knowledge with their colleagues. However, Georgia's manager, Vincent, argues that encouraging employees to do so will cause a downturn in productivity. Which of the following statements supports Georgia's suggestion?
A. Any increase in learning activities in an organization increases workload and decreases the time available to handle the workload.
B. Vincent believes that learning should occur during employees' free time, not as part of their daily work activities.
C. The time that employees spend in research should not interfere with projects that must be accomplished under tight deadlines.
D. Learning a task and knowing how to perform it in an efficient manner is a highly rewarding experience.
E. Vincent feels Georgia's idea will create conflict among her team members.
Q:
People often have multiple roles within the same position.
Q:
At Wakame Beauty Solutions, Sheila created an award-winning line of lip balm, lip gloss, and lipstick after many hours of research and discussions with experts. Now, with her manager's encouragement, she frequently conducts workshops for other employees about lip color and other beauty products. In this scenario, which of the following features of Wakame Beauty Solutions is exemplified?
A. Flexible environment
B. Critical thinking
C. Learning culture
D. Job rotation
E. Functional organization
Q:
Norms are shared expectations of how group members will fulfill the requirements of their position.
Q:
The more desirable group membership is, the more willing the members are to behave according to the team's norms.
Q:
Tamara McKay, a manager at Ionic Consulting, believes that it is important for employees to feel a sense of satisfaction about their jobs. She feels that a satisfied employee will contribute more to the organization than an employee who is dissatisfied with his or her job. Harry, Tamara's coworker, argues that job satisfaction should not have an impact on the quality of work or productivity. Which of the following statements supports Tamara's belief?
A. Rewarding an employee for a job well done helps motivate the person to perform better in his or her job.
B. Salary and benefits should be considered more important than just a satisfying job that provides a small salary.
C. Employees have no interest in being recognized by management for a job well done.
D. Deadlines, when met, help create an environment where an employee is content with his or her job.
E. Employees engage actively in assigned work when there is a free flow of communication between the employer and employee.
Q:
Group cohesiveness refers to the patterns of interactions that emerge as groups develop.
Q:
Calvin, the CEO of Incal Inc., a digital media startup, holds a meeting with his employees, telling them he wants them to put 100% effort into their daily work. To motivate them, he announces that the employee with the best performance will be named Employee of the Month and provided with additional perks. In this scenario, Calvin is trying to increase _____ at Incal Inc.
A. managerial engagement
B. employer engagement
C. client engagement
D. employee engagement
E. distributor engagement
Q:
The employees at Waycliff Foundation are continuously conducting research on ways to improve facilities and benefits for the impoverished children they care for. They then implement the ideas resulting from their research. This is an example of _____.
A. brand alignment
B. continuous learning
C. employee engagement
D. performance management
E. expert systems
Q:
The team performance model states that a team's performance is based on its structure, dynamics, and stage of development.
Q:
Zoom Motors pays a lot of attention to improving employee skills on the job. Its training centers and mentors are open to one-on-one sessions, group discussions, and workshops. The organization boasts a world-class resource center that offers the latest editions of many books and journals related to the automotive industry. All employees have free access to the knowledge pool in the organization and are welcome to initiate discussions on topics of interest. In this scenario, Zoom Motors has created a _____.
A. learning organization
B. cultural organization
C. static organization
D. smart organization
E. technology-based organization
Q:
The standing committee is a formal, temporary team that disbands when its purpose is accomplished.
Q:
Which of the following is a way in which organizations can promote job satisfaction?
A. They can make jobs more repetitive.
B. They can set up subjective performance management systems.
C. They can set highly abstract goals.
D. They can empower supervisors.
E. They can make jobs more interesting.
Q:
The ad hoc committee is a formal, ongoing team that often has rotating members.
Q:
Being a member of a task group is in addition to one's job in a functional group.
Q:
Informal groups develop spontaneously when members get together voluntarily because of similar interests.
Q:
"I can pay up to $5,000 for the bike, but not more than that." Which of the following parts of negotiating planning is this an example of?
A. The best alternative to a negotiated agreement
B. A specific limit objective
C. A target objective
D. An opening objective offer
Q:
"My mind is made up! If they do not offer me theft insurance, I will not buy the smartphone." Which of the following parts of negotiating planning is this an example of?
A. The best alternative to a negotiated agreement
B. A specific limit objective
C. A target objective
D. An opening objective offer
Q:
Briefly describe group mentoring programs.
Q:
"Tim will decide on a job tomorrow after negotiating the compensation package." Which of the following should Tim do as the final step of negotiating planning?
A. Research the other party.
B. Set a specific limit objective.
C. Set a target objective of what he really wants.
D. Develop options and trade-offs.
Q:
Jonathan wants to buy a new motorbike and visits a dealer. After negotiating with the dealer for a while, Jonathan tells the dealer that he will buy the bike only if he gets free insurance for it. From this scenario, it can said that Jonathan has:
A. planned his best alternative to a negotiated agreement.
B. set an opening objective offer.
C. set a target objective.
D. set a specific limit objective.
Q:
When bargaining, which of the following should one do?
A. Develop options and trade-offs
B. Postpone negotiations
C. Ask for something in return
D. Create urgency
Q:
Which of the following is the final step in the negotiating process?
A. Bargaining
B. Researching
C. Postponement
D. Agreement
Q:
What are the different kinds of formal educational programs that organizations may use to support employee development?
Q:
Which of the following is the first step in the negotiating process?
A. Bargaining
B. Planning
C. Creating an agreement
D. Setting objectives
Q:
Which of the following should one incorporate in planning the negotiating process?
A. Let the other party make the first offer
B. Postpone negotiations
C. Develop options and trade-offs
D. Focus on obstacles, not the person
Q:
An Individual Coaching for Effectiveness program is designed to:
A. help managers with dysfunctional behavior.
B. improve the technical skills of employees.
C. help prepare managers for overseas assignments.
D. reduce the effects of the glass ceiling.
E. attract and retain ambitious managerial employees.
Q:
Which of the following is a true statement about developing options and trade-offs during negotiating planning?
A. One should let other parties know what one has to lose.
B. If one has multiple sellers, one is in a weaker power position to get one's target price.
C. One should avoid quoting other offers and ask if the other party can beat them.
D. One should avoid asking for something in return.