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Q:
In terms of the Job Characteristics Model, feedback refers to the extent to which _____.
A. a job requires a variety of skills to carry out the tasks involved in the job and its duties
B. employees are given the authority to make decisions
C. performance appraisals are perceived as transparent and fair by employees
D. a job requires a variety of skills to carry out the tasks involved
E. a person receives clear information about performance effectiveness from the work itself
Q:
Within the Job Characteristics Model, _____ refers to the job characteristic that reflects the degree to which the job allows an individual to make decisions about the way the work is carried out. A. task knowledge
B. task ability
C. skill variety
D. autonomy
E. feedback
Q:
In the Job Characteristics Model, task identity is defined as the _____.
A. extent to which a job requires a variety of skills to carry out the tasks involved
B. degree to which the job allows an individual to make decisions about the way the work will be carried out
C. the extent to which a person receives clear information about performance effectiveness from the work itself
D. degree to which a job requires completing a whole piece of work from beginning to end
E. extent to which the job has an important impact on the lives of other people
Q:
Which of the following models was developed by Richard Hackman and Greg Oldham to describe ways to make jobs more motivating?
A. The Cognitive Dissonance Model
B. The Situational Leadership Model
C. The Job Characteristics Model
D. The Push and Pull Model
E. The Motivation-Hygiene Model
Q:
Philip Matteo, a regional branch manager for a leading automobile company in the U.S., decides to design a manufacturing job based on the principles of industrial engineering. Following its successful implementation which of the following outcomes should he expect?
A. Increased efficiency
B. Increased complexity
C. Decreased repetitiveness
D. Increased skill requirements
E. Decreased specialization
Q:
Which of the following is true about applying industrial engineering to a job?
A. It increases the complexity of the work.
B. It eliminates the need for specialization in the job.
C. It makes jobs less specialized and less repetitive.
D. It provides measurable and practical benefits.
E. It represents the best way to add meaningfulness to jobs.
Q:
The industrial engineering approach is most likely to emphasize _____.
A. elaborate work arrangements and reporting requirements
B. streamlining jobs to make them simpler, efficient, and automatic
C. designing jobs in such a way that they require minimal specialization
D. exploring new and diverse ways of doing the same job
E. creating complex and challenging jobs that require innovative employees
Q:
The process of defining how work will be performed and what tasks will be required in a given job is known as _____.
A. job rotation
B. job evaluation
C. job design
D. job enrichment
E. job extension
Q:
A(n) _____ is an area of personal capability that enables employees to perform their work successfully.
A. competency
B. entity
C. identity
D. duty
E. opportunity
Q:
Which of the following best defines competency?
A. It is the set of duties performed by a particular team.
B. It is the list of tasks, duties, and responsibilities (TDRs) that a particular job entails.
C. It is the set of related duties for accomplishing work.
D. It is the activity that a work units members engage in to produce a given output.
E. It is an area of personal capability that enables employees to perform successfully.
Q:
Which of the following is likely to contribute to errors in a job analysis?
A. Use of multiple analysis methods to obtain a detailed job analysis.
B. Inputs from multiple sources like incumbents and supervisors.
C. Fixed and unchanging job descriptions for various jobs.
D. Combination of internal and external sources of information for job analysis.
E. Creation of comprehensive and detailed job description.
Q:
_____ involves assessing the relative dollar value of each job to the organization in order to set up fair pay structures.
A. Job evaluation
B. Career planning
C. Training
D. Performance appraisal
E. Job rotation
Q:
Which of the following HR activities is similar to analyzing a job that does not yet exist?
A. Human resource planning
B. Career development
C. Job evaluation
D. Work redesign
E. Selection
Q:
A limitation in using the PAQ is that it _____.
A. applies exclusively to similar job profiles
B. measures only the inputs of a work process
C. fails to provide computerized reports
D. requires incumbents to spend time filling the questionnaires
E. results in abstract reports that are of limited use
Q:
To gather information about worker requirements, the Fleishman Job Analysis System typically asks _____ to evaluate a job in terms of the abilities required to perform the job.
A. subject-matter experts
B. supervisors
C. HR specialists
D. external analysts
E. the top management
Q:
Which of the following job analysis methods requires subject-matter experts to evaluate a job in terms of abilities required to perform the job?
A. Work Sampling Technique
B. Participatory Observation Technique
C. Fleishman Job Analysis System
D. Position Analysis Questionnaire
E. Conjoint Analysis Technique
Q:
Which of the following is true of the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ)?
A. It considers only the inputs of a work process, ignoring the outputs.
B. PAQ reports provide concrete recommendations useful for writing job descriptions or redesigning jobs.
C. PAQ ratings cannot be used to compare dissimilar jobs.
D. The descriptions in the PAQ reports are very clear and specific.
E. The PAQ is meant to be completed only by job analysts trained in this method.
Q:
The _____ Questionnaire is a standardized job analysis questionnaire containing 194 questions about work behaviors, work conditions, and job characteristics that apply to a wide variety of jobs.
A. Utilization Analysis
B. Fleishman Job Analysis
C. Work Flow Design
D. Conjoint Analysis
E. Position Analysis
Q:
Which of the following is true of O*NET?
A. It provides listings of fixed job titles and narrow task descriptions.
B. It uses a common language that generalizes across jobs to describe the abilities, work styles, work activities, and work context required for various occupations.
C. It represents the first attempt made by the U.S. Department of Labor to match the demand and supply of labor.
D. It uses a popular Internet-based software platform to provide information about the availability of qualified labor for governmental professions only.
E. It was created by the U.S. Department of Labor in the 1930s as a vehicle for helping the new public employment system link the demand and the supply of skills in the U.S. workforce.
Q:
In the 1930s, the U.S. Department of Labor created the _____ as a vehicle for helping the new public employment system link the demand for skills and the supply of skills in the U.S. workforce.
A. Career Development Facilitator (CDF)
B. Dictionary of Occupational Titles (DOT)
C. Occupational Information Network (O NET)
D. Standard Occupational Classification (SOC)
E. Selected Characteristics of Occupations (SCO)
Q:
For analyzing technical skill levels, the best source for job information may be ____, who have vast experience rating a wide range of jobs.
A. HR executives
B. incumbents
C. supervisors
D. line managers
E. external job analysts
Q:
Which of the following is a drawback of relying solely on incumbents for job information?
A. They lack in-depth knowledge of the tasks and duties of the job.
B. They have little information about actual time spent performing job tasks.
C. They may have an incentive to exaggerate what they do.
D. They are less accurate in reporting safety-related risk factors.
E. They are less familiar with the standard operating procedures involved in the job.
Q:
Which of the following is true about knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) that are required for a job?
A. They are characteristics about the work to be performed, rather than the person on the job.
B. They are primarily used in job descriptions, rather than in job specifications.
C. They play an important role in interviews and selection decisions.
D. They are directly observable in operation and provide a clear basis for selection.
E. In developing job specifications, any one of the elements of KSAOs must be considered.
Q:
_____ refers to factual or procedural information that is necessary for successfully performing a task.
A. Knowledge
B. Attitude
C. Experience
D. Personality
E. Outlook
Q:
Skill is defined as _____.
A. the past experience a person has in performing similar jobs
B. the factual or procedural information that is necessary for successfully performing a task
C. an individuals level of proficiency at performing a particular task
D. the personality traits such as someones persistence or motivation to achieve
E. the tangible aspects of an employees abilities like licenses or certifications
Q:
Carla Warne is an HR executive looking for a new job. She comes across an advertisement in a newspaper seeking applications for the post of an HR manager. The advertisement exclusively highlights requirements such as strong communication skills, excellent teamwork, and leadership skills. These requirements constitute the _____. A. Knowledge
B. Personality traits
C. Skill
D. Specification
E. Ability
Q:
Job specifications differ from job descriptions in that job specifications primarily describe:
A. the list of the tasks and responsibilities that the job entails.
B. the observable actions that comprise the various job demands.
C. the reporting relationships within the division which includes the job.
D. the functional needs of the position under study.
E. the qualities a person performing the job must possess.
Q:
A _____ is a list of the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) that an individual must have to perform a particular job.
A. job rotation
B. job definition
C. job evaluation
D. job scope
E. job specification
Q:
Which of the following is an appropriate course of action while formulating job descriptions?
A. Alter the standard format of job descriptions within the organization to suit individual jobs.
B. Prohibit using the phrase and other duties as requested in job descriptions because it leads to ambiguity.
C. Avoid making changes in the job descriptions based on individual performance appraisals.
D. Prepare a new job description whenever a new job is created in the organization.
E. Once standardized and created, a job description must not be changed.
Q:
Job descriptions generally contain all of the following components EXCEPT _____.
A. the job title
B. a list of essential duties
C. a brief description of the responsibilities
D. the details of pay and benefits attached to the job
E. the details of the tasks involved
Q:
Which of the following refers to a list of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that a job entails?
A. job evaluation
B. job description
C. utilization analysis
D. conjoint analysis
E. job standardization.
Q:
The process of getting detailed information about jobs is known as _____. A. job analysis
B. job definition
C. job training
D. job swapping
E. job rotation
Q:
What is the result of an organization structure that is strongly based on function?
A. Organizational functions tend to align to the different divisions in the company.
B. Jobs tend to involve teamwork or broad responsibility.
C. Focus tends to be primarily on products or customer groups.
D. Workers tend to work alone at highly specialized jobs.
E. Decision-making tends to be highly decentralized.
Q:
In the context of a work flow analysis, materials, equipment, and human resources needed to perform the tasks collectively constitute the _____.
A. outputs
B. jobs
C. work processes
D. operating procedures
E. inputs
Q:
The final stage in work flow analysis is to identify the _____.
A. tangible outputs of a particular work unit
B. operating procedures to be applied in production
C. work processes used to generate the outputs of the work unit
D. inputs used in the development of the work unit's product
E. market forces of demand and supply for the outputs
Q:
Once the outputs are identified, the next step in a work flow analysis involves _____.
A. identifying the materials needed to generate the output
B. determining the human resource requirements for production
C. examining the work processes used to generate those outputs
D. taking an inventory of the special equipment, facilities, and systems needed for production
E. estimating the data and information needed by the work unit
Q:
_____ are the activities that a teams members engage in to produce a given output.
A. Work processes
B. Task identities
C. Group dynamics
D. Job analyses
E. Ergonomic activities
Q:
_____ are the products of any work unit.
A. Outputs
B. Inputs
C. Tasks
D. Jobs
E. Processes
Q:
Which of the following statements is true with regard to work flow analysis? A. Information cannot be considered to be an input as it is not tangible.
B. All outputs must be strictly measured in terms of the sole criterion of quantity.
C. Quality standards are not a key criterion in the process of work flow analysis.
D. Outputs may be tangible or intangible products of different work processes.
E. Inputs and outputs are the two stages that represent the complete work flow cycle.
Q:
In the context of work flow design, a position is _____.
A. the set of duties performed by a person
B. a set of related duties fulfilled by many employees
C. an aggregate of similar jobs
D. the set of skills and abilities that is required of a person in a job
E. the collection of tasks that constitute the complete organizational process
Q:
The process of analyzing the tasks necessary for the production of a product or service is termed as _____.
A. ergonomics
B. work flow design
C. utilization analysis
D. industrial engineering
E. break-even analysis
Q:
One method to simplify a jobs mental demands is to limit the amount of memorization required for the job.
Q:
OSHAs role in ergonomics in occupational settings is restricted to setting guidelines and inspecting instances of violation.
Q:
The primary goal of ergonomics is to reduce the information-processing requirements of a job.
Q:
A telework arrangement is easiest to implement for manufacturing workers.
Q:
Joe has opted for a schedule where he works 40 hours over four days instead of working eight hours a day for five days, and gets a three-day off over the weekend. Joes schedule can be termed a compressed workweek.
Q:
Job sharing is a work option in which several relatively simple jobs are combined to form a job with a wider range of tasks.
Q:
According to Herzbergs two-factor theory, individuals are motivated more by the extrinsic aspects of work when compared to the intrinsic rewards.
Q:
Job extension is defined as moving employees among several different jobs without changing the nature of the jobs the employee handles.
Q:
In the Job Characteristics Model, task significance defines the degree to which a job requires completing a whole piece of work from beginning to end.
Q:
Industrial engineering provides the best way to motivate employees by adding meaning to their jobs.
Q:
Applying industrial engineering to a job essentially increases its complexity.
Q:
Job design is the process of defining how work will be performed and what tasks will be required in a given job.
Q:
Jobs that have survived the downsizing of recession tend to have a narrower scope of responsibilities coupled with increased supervision.
Q:
The expanded use of project-based organizational structures has reduced the need for analysis of work flows.
Q:
The Fleishman Job Analysis System asks subject-matter experts to evaluate a job in terms of the abilities required to perform the job.
Q:
The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is meant to be completed by job incumbents.
Q:
The Occupational Information Network relies on fixed job titles and narrow task descriptions to describe the occupational requirements.
Q:
Incumbents are the best source of information for a job analysis.
Q:
Ability is defined as a general enduring capability that an individual possesses.
Q:
All job descriptions within an organization should follow the same format.
Q:
The tasks, duties, and responsibilities (TDRs) of a job are non-observable actions.
Q:
Job analysis can only be performed by certified external analysts of the U.S. Department of Labor.
Q:
Jobs that involve teamwork or broad responsibility tend to require a structure based on functions.
Q:
Work processes are the activities that a work units members engage in to produce a given output.
Q:
Work flow design is the process of analyzing the tasks necessary for the production of a product or service.
Q:
Differing conduct toward individuals, where the differences are clearly based on the individuals race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, or disability status is termed as _____.
A. disparate impact
B. affirmative action
C. disparate treatment
D. reasonable accommodation
E. reverse discrimination
Q:
_____ refer(s) to a plan identifying the ways in which for how the organization will meet its diversity goals.
A. Action steps
B. Utilization analysis
C. Diversification
D. Affirmative action
E. Disparate impact
Q:
Which of the following refers to a comparison of the race, sex, and ethnic composition of the employers workforce with that of the available labor supply?
A. Content analysis
B. Job analysis
C. SWOT analysis
D. Utilization analysis
E. Applied behavior analysis
Q:
Which of the following bodies is responsible for enforcing the executive orders that cover companies doing business with the federal government?
A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health
C. Office of Federal Contract Compliance Procedures
D. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
E. Federal Department of Employment and Workplace Relations
Q:
_____ is the set of guidelines issued by the EEOC and other agencies to identify how an organization should establish a recruitment process that is free and fair.
A. Uniform Commercial Code
B. Equal Opportunity Legislation and Policy
C. Code of Federal Regulations
D. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures
E. EEO-1 Report
Q:
_____ refers to an agreement between the EEOC and an organization that the organization will cease certain discriminatory practices and possibly institute additional affirmative-action practices to rectify its history of discrimination.
A. Trust agreement
B. Good faith bargaining
C. Consent decree
D. Letter of indemnity
E. Judicial estoppel
Q:
After filing a discrimination complaint with the EEOC or other governmental agency, how long does an individual have to wait to sue in federal court?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 10 days
D. 20 days
E. 40 days
Q:
An individual wishing to file a complaint with the EEOC or a similar state agency must file the complaint within _____ days of the incident.
A. 30
B. 14
C. 360
D. 7
E. 180
Q:
Which of the following legislations requires the federal government to base all its employment policies on merit and fitness?
A. The Thirteenth Amendment to the Constitution
B. Executive Order 11478
C. Civil Rights Act of 1866
D. Civil Rights Act of 1871
E. Rehabilitation Act of 1973
Q:
An employee leaves an organization for three years to fulfill military duties. Which of the following observations is true of the employers obligation to reemploy the worker under the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act?
A. The employer is not obligated to reemploy the worker.
B. The employer must reemploy the worker with the same seniority and status.
C. The employer must reemploy the worker but is exempted from providing him any fringe benefits or retirement benefits.
D. The employer should implement an early-retirement incentive program for the employee.
E. The employer must reemploy the employee with a lower pay scale to compensate for the loss of his absence.
Q:
Under Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994, employers must reemploy workers who left jobs to fulfill military duties for up to _____ years.
A. five
B. eight
C. eleven
D. seven
E. ten
Q:
Lucas Johnson, an employee with the U.S. postal services was deployed to Afghanistan, to serve in the U.S. army for two years. After the completion of his military duties, he reassumed work at the post office. He was reemployed at a higher status and provided a higher compensation package. Which of the following legislations was used to help Lucas return to reemployment on such favorable terms?
A. GINA
B. USERRA
C. ADA
D. ADEA
E. OSH Act
Q:
Which of the following is true about the Civil Rights Act of 1991?
A. It limits damage claims to attorneys fees and costs.
B. It requires violators to pay punitive damages that specifically cover emotional pain and suffering.
C. It prohibits violators from paying compensatory damages.
D. It limits the maximum punitive damages allowed, depending on the size of the organization.
E. It limits the maximum punitive damages to $50,000 for all organizations even if the discrimination was intentional.
Q:
Cellant Solar Energy, Inc. is a company that produces solar panels for domestic use. It has 800 permanent employees working in different departments. Suppose Cellant gets involved in a case of intentional employee discrimination, what will be the maximum punitive damage that it will have to pay under the Civil Rights Act of 1991?
A. $50,000
B. $100,000
C. $200,000
D. $250,000
E. $300,000