Q&A Hero

Q: The rules for drug testing include all of the following EXCEPT: A. drug testing should be administered systematically to all applicants for the same job. B. the drug test reports should not be sent to applicants. C. drug testing should be conducted for employees working in jobs that involve safety hazards. D. drug testing should be conducted in an environment that is not intrusive. E. drug-testing programs should allow for strict confidentiality of results.

Q: Which of the following tests is a legal means to test the integrity of job applicants and generally involves asking applicants directly about their attitudes toward theft and their own experiences with theft? A. Polygraph test B. Paper-and-pencil honesty test C. Cognitive ability test D. Personality inventory test E. In-basket test

Q: An applicant who is drug addict, currently engaged in illegal use of drugs, has rights to employment that are outlined in the Americans with Disabilities Act.

Q: Sean Mathers, a recruiter for a retail firm, is looking for candidates to fill a sales position. Since the job requires the salesperson to interact with customers, Sean is looking for candidates who are expressive and convincing with customers. He also wants the candidates to be friendly and social. Which one of the Big Five traits is Sean looking for in particular? A. Extroversion B. Adjustment C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Inquisitiveness

Q: An affirmative action plan developed by contractors and subcontractors to ensure equal employment opportunity is monitored by the Office of Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP) in the U.S. Department of Labor.

Q: Which of the following traits describe conscientiousness? A. Sociable, gregarious, assertive, talkative B. Dependable, organized, persevering, achievement-oriented C. Courteous, trusting, good-natured, tolerant D. Emotionally stable, nondepressed, secure, content E. Curious, imaginative, artistically sensitive, broad-minded

Q: One of the affirmative defense strategies recommended for organizations is to detail the sanctions for violators and protection for those who make any charges.

Q: The Big Five traits that include extroversion, adjustment, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and inquisitiveness, are all _____ dimensions. A. physical ability B. cognitive ability C. aptitude D. personality E. skills

Q: White men are not legally able to file suit under Title VII of the CRA.

Q: In-basket tests are an example of _____ tests. A. job performance B. physical ability C. honesty D. personality E. cognitive ability

Q: If the employee does not suffer economic injury, or discharge there can be no charge of discrimination.

Q: Which of the following is true about job performance tests? A. They provide fair evaluations for applicants. B. They have the lowest level of validity compared to other tests. C. These tests are highly generalizable. D. Customization of these tests for various jobs is inexpensive. E. They are best suited for identifying the particular skills or traits the individual possesses.

Q: Harassment is not a form of employment discrimination.

Q: An assessment center: A. is a place where job applicants for manufacturing jobs undergo physical ability tests. B. conducts a single test for all job applicants to test their technical potential. C. uses multiple selection methods to rate applicants on their management potential. D. is a selection method generally used for unskilled employees. E. has the lowest validity because it combines several assessment methods.

Q: The Fisher test can be used to ascertain the relationship between two categorical variables and two levels.

Q: A typing test for an administrative assistants job is an example of a(n) _____ test. A. job performance B. cognitive ability C. physical ability D. personality inventories E. emotional intelligence

Q: The 80 percent or four-fifths rule derives from the EEOCs Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures.

Q: The controversial practice that treats a range of scores as being similar and thus allows the employer to give preference to underrepresented groups within these similar scores is known as _____. A. banding B. generalizing C. affirmative action D. sensitizing

Q: Employers can fire or reassign an employee who files EEO charges or parties who testify on behalf of plaintiffs in cases of disparate treatment with no need to consider the legal implications of those actions.

Q: The time limits for filing a charge of discrimination have been modified under the Equal Pay Act.

Q: What is race norming? A. Treating a range of scores as being similar B. Establishing different norms for hiring members of different racial groups C. A legal quota system that protects interests of people with disabilities D. Basing selection decisions on a common norm for all races, regardless of impact E. Use of cognitive tests that discriminate against women and people with disabilities

Q: The 180-day deadline for filing a charge of discrimination can never be extended.

Q: Which of the following is a concern relating to the use of cognitive ability tests? A. Lack of validity of the tests for complex jobs B. Lack of reliable and commercially available tests C. Legal issues related to administering the tests D. Lack of validity of the tests for those jobs that require adaptability E. Relatively high cost

Q: Title VII prohibits all bona fide occupational qualifications (BFOQs) or discriminatory practices.

Q: Which of the following is true about cognitive ability tests? A. They are especially valid for jobs requiring adaptability. B. They are relatively expensive compared to the other tests. C. They measure strength, endurance, psychomotor abilities, and other physical abilities. D. They are free from legal complications. E. They are especially valid for simple jobs.

Q: Tests designed to measure such mental skills as verbal skills, quantitative skills, and reasoning ability are referred to as _____ tests. A. job performance B. honesty C. personality inventories D. cognitive ability E. physical ability

Q: Employer sanctions resulting from a case of disparate impact can affect areas of the business beyond HR, for example changes to advertising strategies and catalog content.

Q: The EEOCs definition of an applicant is not relevant to cases of adverse treatment.

Q: _____ tests are sometimes called intelligence tests. A. Achievement B. Psychomotor C. Adaptability D. Cognitive ability E. Endurance

Q: The Equal Pay Act (EPA) prohibits indiscrimination on the basis of age by apprenticeship programs, including joint labor-management apprenticeship programs.

Q: What do achievement tests measure? A. The ability of a person to perform well under pressure B. A persons existing knowledge and skills C. The ability of a person to acquire skills D. The future achievement potential of an individual E. The attitude of an individual

Q: All claims of discrimination under CRA, ADEA, and ADA need be filed with the EEOC either directly or through dual filing with a state agency.

Q: Which of the following tests assess how well a person can learn or acquire skills and abilities? A. Personality inventories tests B. Work sample tests C. Achievement tests D. Aptitude tests E. Physical ability tests

Q: EEO legislation is meant to ensure that personnel selection decision are non-discriminatory, however, the law is silent on issues related to training, compensation and employee discipline.

Q: Retaliation is a special form of disparate impact.

Q: In general, the results of reference checks for job applicants will be most valid if the employer _____. A. contacts many references B. relies exclusively on the list provided by the applicant C. avoids direct contact with the reference D. restricts contact with the references through e-mails E. receives positive opinions about the employee from the reference

Q: Job-relatedness requires the employer to use a careful job analysis to identify the specific knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to perform the job.

Q: Which of the following is one of the ways by which individuals acting as references for job applicants can minimize the risk of being sued for defamation or misrepresentation? A. By giving as much information as possible B. By exclusively giving out positive information about a candidate C. By only giving information about observable, job-related behaviors D. By giving only broad opinions E. By excluding employment dates and the employees final salary

Q: Ricky Jones, a 33-year old unemployed software engineer, had applied for a job in SeaTech Inc., a Florida-based software company. He had mentioned his former project manager as his reference in the application form. But he was rejected soon after the HR of SeaTech called his former manager and learnt that Ricky was involved in an issue of sexual misconduct. Sensing this to be the reason for his rejection at SeaTech, Ricky threatened to sue his former manager on charges of _____. A. misappropriation B. fraud C. misrepresentation D. defamation E. negligence

Q: The four-fifths rule indicates that a selection rate (number selected/number considered) for a protected group cannot be greater than four-fifths or 80 percent of the selection rate for the group with the highest selection rate.

Q: If a former employer gives a glowing statement about a candidate and the new employer later learns of misconduct on the part of the employee during his/her previous employment, the new employer may sue the former for _____. A. negligence B. misrepresentation C. defamation D. misappropriation E. libel

Q: What differentiates domestic HR from international HR?

Q: If a person who is the reference gives negative information about the job candidate, there is a chance the candidate will claim _____, meaning the person damaged the applicants reputation by making statements that cannot be proved truthful. A. defamation B. misappropriation C. fraud D. misrepresentation E. negligence

Q: What is the objective of businesses creating offshore professional and operations centers.

Q: Generally, the organization checks references _____. A. only if it believes the information provided by the applicant is incorrect B. immediately after the applicant submits a rsum C. after it has determined that the applicant is a finalist for the job D. because it is a legal requirement under EEO laws E. of all applicants to a job

Q: Which are the common areas of conflict in a joint venture?

Q: Review of rsums is most valid when the content of the rsums is evaluated in _____. A. terms of the elements of a job description B. comparison with other applicants qualifications C. terms of the incumbents competencies D. terms of the industrial benchmarks E. comparison with other employees in the organization

Q: Explain the merits and demerits of licensing and franchising to the licensors, licensees, franchisors, and franchisees.

Q: Organizations typically use rsums _____. A. as substitutes for interviews B. as a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further C. to save the cost of administering tests related to the performance on the job D. because they can control the content of the information, as well as the way it is presented E. because they are generally an unbiased source of information

Q: List few reasons why a company would choose exports as an option for international commerce.

Q: Which of the following is a disadvantage of using rsums as a source of information about job applicants? A. It is a relatively expensive method of gathering information. B. It does not allow applicants to highlight accomplishments. C. Review of rsums is least valid when the content of the rsums is evaluated in terms of the elements of a job description. D. It is biased in favor of the employer. E. The content of the information is controlled by applicants.

Q: List the five Asian economies expected to share the world's largest economies with the U.S. by 2020.

Q: List a few reasons for organizations to expand their business interests beyond their national boundaries?

Q: Which of the following details need to be asked in an application form to gather information about suitable candidates? A. Marital status B. History of disabilities C. Number of children D. Educational background E. Applicant's race

Q: Your company has decided to open a branch in another country. As the human resource manager, it is your job to determine how the foreign subsidiary will interact with the parent corporation. Define the four international human resource management strategies you may choose from. Be sure to describe the role both locals and expatriates would play in the subsidiary's development.

Q: Employers use application forms for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that: A. they are a low-cost way to gather basic data from many applicants. B. they ensure that the organization has certain standard categories of information. C. they are not subject to equal employment opportunity standards. D. they allow the employer to keep up-to-date records of job applicants. E. they enable organizations to rank applicants.

Q: Which of the following holds good under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986? A. Employers must verify and maintain records on the legal rights of applicants to work in the United States. B. Employers must file a completed Form I-9 with the Immigration and Naturalization Service and retain the documents for at least ten years. C. Employers can pay lower wages to the immigrant workers. D. Employers must verify the legal age of employees who do not hold American citizenship. E. Employers are allowed to discriminate against persons on the basis of citizenship status.

Q: What factors influence the decision to invest in a particular international market?

Q: Explain the differences between licensing and franchising, licensor and franchiser, and licensee and franchisee. Use examples to illustrate.

Q: Which of the following is an impermissible question for job applications and interviews? A. What is your full name? B. Have you ever been convicted of a crime? C. What was your major in college? D. Do you have any disabilities? E. Can you meet the requirements of the work schedule?

Q: When determining how to compensate expatriates, an advantage of the going-rate approach is that A) the expatriate is kept whole during the assignment because his pay is similar to the pay that would have been received for working the same job in their home county B) locals perceive the pay as fair because the expatriate is paid at a rate that is similar to the pay received by local employees of that company who have similar position, performance and experience. C) it is an effective means to reduce costs because you are offering the expatriate the ability to choose from a variety of benefit options that are appropriate to the location of the expatriate assignment. D) although it is a high cost approach, the ability of the expatriate to save on housing and social expenses while on assignment makes expatriate assignments in countries with low pay levels more attractive. E) with the increase in dual income families, this options provides an incentive for both the employee of the company and their spouse to accept an expatriate assignment

Q: Which of the following is a permissible question for job applications and interviews? A. How would you feel about working for someone younger than you? B. Are you a citizen of the United States? C. What religious holidays do you observe? D. Where were you born? E. Will you need any reasonable accommodation for this hiring process

Q: Which of the following statement best describes host-country nationals? A) Individuals who have proven themselves in the local marketplace. B) Individuals who are residents of the organizations home country who are sent offshore on assignment C) Individuals contributing important information, perspective, and decision-making factors. D) Individuals attaching more importance to freedom and challenges in job. E) Individuals who are residents of countries in which a foreign subsidiary is located.

Q: Which of the following is true according to the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1991? A. The employer can ask preemployment questions to investigate disabilities. B. The interviewer is prohibited from asking a candidate if he/she can meet the attendance requirements for the job. C. The interviewer is permitted to ask the candidate the number of sick leaves he/she took at his/her previous job. D. The employer is permitted to use, for hiring decisions, employment physical exams that could reveal a psychological or physical disability. E. Employers are required to make reasonable accommodation to disabled individuals.

Q: Individuals who are residents of the organizations home country who are sent offshore on assignment are called __________. A) third-country nationals B) host country nationals C) parent country nationals D) parent host nationals E) third-host nationals

Q: Which act prohibits preferential treatment in favor of minority groups? A. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 199191 B. The Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986 C. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 D. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 E. The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938

Q: UNCTAD is an abbreviation for __________. A) United Nations Conference on Tariff and Development B) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development C) United National Conference on Trade and Development D) United National Conference on Tariff and Development E) Unified Nations Conference on Trade and Development

Q: The use of a neutral-appearing selection method that damages a protected group is _____. A. legal if the employer has a turnover of less than $100,000 B. legal if the company using the selection method has 100 or more employees C. legal if the employer can show that there is a business necessity for using that method D. illegal and prohibited under all circumstances E. legal if the company using the selection method operates in the software industry

Q: A(n) __________ is formed when companies agree to partner with one another, but do not set up a separate entity. A) Joint venture B) Merger C) Strategic alliance D) Sole ownership E) Task force

Q: Methods that provide economic value greater than the cost of using them are said to have _____. A. reliability B. utility C. validity D. generalizability E. dependability

Q: Pepsi provides Heineken with its formula or agrees to supply the cola syrup and Heineken adds carbonated water, packages it in appropriate containers, and sells it in the Netherlands. Pepsi cannot enter into a similar agreement with another firm to sell Pepsi in the Netherlands, and Heineken cannot alter the product, nor can it begin duplicating other Pepsi products (such as Lays Potato Chips) without a separate agreement. This is an example of: A) Franchising. B) Exporting. C) Licensing. D) Contract manufacturing. E) Management contracts.

Q: Evan Smith is the HR manager of a publishing company. He wants to know if a certain test of cognitive ability, used in the advertising industry, can be successfully used in his organization. In other words, he wants to know if this test is a(n) _____ method of personnel selection. A. substitutable B. evaluative C. practical D. generalizable E. nondirective

Q: Hofstedes work on culture and its impact on managing HR within an international environment was conducted in the 1960s and 70s. It is interesting that A) the results of his work have been replicated, confirming the validity of his findings, and recent studies have expanded on his original theory. B) while his work is often cited, it was impossible to replicate his findings in subsequent studies. C) the results of his study can only be applied within the electronics industry and have no relevance outside of that industry. D) the definition of culture when used in reference to a society is in many ways very different from the definition when used to describe the environment within a company. E) the study found vast differences between the culture of the society and the culture of the local companies that operated in that society.

Q: A selection method that is valid in other contexts beyond the context in which it was developed is said to be _____. A. reliable. B. generalizable. C. practical. D. utilitarian. E. dependable.

Q: In the __________ approach, foreign subsidiaries have little autonomy, operations are centralized, and major decisions are made at corporate headquarters. A) Geocentric B) Ethnocentric C) Polycentric D) Regiocentric E) Sociocentric

Q: For tests that measure abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership skills, validity would best be established by _____ validation. A. criterion-related B. content C. concurrent D. construct E. predictive

Q: A company that exports, as a means to sell its products in foreign markets will A) Have a direct investment in a foreign market. B) Increase sales volume allowing for better management of the costs associated with research and development C) Avoid the high cost of transportation fees and tariffs and maintain a competitive advantage. D) Enable individuals to take advantage of existing advertising and training to ensure success. E) Maintain exclusivity with one other company to distribute product and control their brand in the foreign country.

Q: Which of the following is true about content validity? A. It is usually measured on the basis of expert judgment. B. It indicates how free a measurement is from random errors. C. It is most suitable for tests that measure abstract qualities. D. A test that scores high on content validity tends to score low on generalizability. E. It is useful for tests that measure intelligence and leadership quality.

Q: A(n) __________ leases the right to use its intellectual property to another firm. A) Licensor B) Licensee C) Franchisee D) Contractor E) Expatriate

Q: Which of the following best describes content validity? A. It is the extent to which something provides economic value greater than its cost. B. It is the extent to which a measurement is free from random error. C. It is the consistency between the test items or problems and the kinds of situations or problems that occur on the job. D. It is the consistency between a high score on a test and high level of a construct such as intelligence or leadership ability, as well as between mastery of this construct and successful performance of the job. E. It is the measure of validity based on showing a substantial correlation between test scores and job performance scores.