Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Human Resource
Q:
The Equal Pay Act (EPA) of 1963 sets minimum wage, overtime pay requirements, and rules governing child labor.
Q:
Peer review is an example of _____.
A. alternative dispute resolution
B. employee assistance programs
C. outplacement counseling
D. fair representation
E. employee carve-out
Q:
The use of broadbanding is suited to situation where the compensation system should support team based pay plans.
Q:
The _____ type of alternate dispute resolution works only to the degree that employees trust management and managers who hear complaints listen and are able to act.
A. employee carve-out
B. behavioral modeling
C. open-door policy
D. fair representation
E. peer review system
Q:
Team pay plans are based on the assumption that professional competence increases with training and longevity.
Q:
Which of the following has the primary responsibility of creating a formal discipline process for the workplace?
A. Human resource department
B. Outplacement counselors
C. Legal department
D. Sales force
E. Arbitrators
Q:
Broadbanding can increase worker productivity and product quality, while decreasing absenteeism, turnover, and accident rates.
Q:
Conducting personal business online during work hours is called:
A. cybersquatting.
B. cyber bullying.
C. cyber sleeping.
D. cyberstalking.
E. cyberslacking.
Q:
Broadbanding allows managers to make very precise differentiations in pay through the large number of pay grades.
Q:
A progressive discipline system:
A. includes peer reviews, mediation and arbitration.
B. always involves four parties: the employee, the union, the company, and the courts.
C. communicates unacceptable behavior and responds to a series of offenses with increasing forcefulness.
D. is consistent with the employment-at-will doctrine because it gives employers the power to hire-or-fire at will.
E. is objective, immediate, and impersonal.
Q:
Pay rates provide increased flexibility that enables managers to consider particular job-related characteristics of individual employees or job candidates.
Q:
Which of the following is a typical first response in the progressive discipline system?
A. Official spoken warning
B. Written warning with threat of temporary suspension
C. Temporary suspension with no written notice
D. Unofficial spoken warning
E. Termination
Q:
The most common traditional pay structure involves grouping similar jobs into pay grades and assigning a salary range, with a minimum, midpoint, and maximum.
Q:
This process seeks to prevent misbehavior and to correct, rather than merely punish misbehavior. Identify the process.
A. Hot-stove rule
B. Fair representation
C. Progressive discipline
D. Benchmarking
E. Peer review panel
Q:
Salary survey is the principal tool for establishing market pricing approach.
Q:
In a point-factor plan, a jobs relative worth is the sum of the numerical values for each degree within each factor.
Q:
The principles of justice suggest that organizations prepare for problems by establishing a formal discipline process in which the consequences become more serious if the employee repeats the offense. Identify this process.
A. Hot-stove rule of discipline
B. Progressive discipline system
C. Alternative dispute resolution program
D. At-will-employment policies
E. Impassive justice
Q:
The hot-stove rule differs from a progressive discipline process in that with the hot-stove rule:
A. the punishment meted is always inconsistent.
B. the consequences for breaking the rule is immediate.
C. the rule breaker will be warned multiple times before termination.
D. the consequences follow a gradual increase in seriousness
E. the ideology is to prevent misbehavior rather than to merely punish it.
Q:
Know-how, problem solving, and accountability are the three major factors within the Hay plan. The impact of the job on end results is one of the sub factors of know-how.
Q:
Uniform allowances and merit increases are examples of fringe compensation.
Q:
According to this principle of discipline, discipline should give clear warning and following up with consistent, objective, immediate consequences. Identify the principle.
A. Per se rule
B. Laissez faire rule
C. Fundamental attribution rule
D. Progressive discipline
E. Hot-stove rule
Q:
The Worker Adjustment Retraining and Notification Act requires that:
A. organizations with unionized operations negotiate any closings or layoffs that will affect employees within the bargaining unit.
B. organizations with more than 100 employees conduct and publicize the results of an environmental, community impact study before a plant closing that will affect at least 50 full-time employees.
C. organizations with 50 or more employees and $10,000 or more in federal contracts prepare and post an affirmation plan.
D. organizations with more than 100 employees give 60 days' notice before any closings or layoffs that will affect at least 50 full-time employees.
E. organizations with more than 50 employees give at least 30 days' notice before any closings or layoffs that will affect all full-time employees.
Q:
Cash compensation is the direct pay provided by employers for work performed.
Q:
Managers should execute a compensation strategy that is in line with the organizations long-term strategy and as a consequence there is no need to consider the firms ability to pay.
Q:
If employers covered by the _____ do not inform the employees (and their union, if applicable) of layoffs, they may have to provide back pay and fringe benefits and pay penalties as well.
A. DavisBacon Act
B. Worker Adjustment Retraining and Notification Act
C. Right-to-Work Act
D. Employee Free Choice Act
E. Fair Labor Standards Act
Q:
According to equity theory, pay satisfaction is a function of the comparisons of an individuals inputoutcome ratio with his or her perceptions about the inputoutcome ratios of referent others.
Q:
When conducting a workplace search, without probable cause, employers can act fairly and minimize the likelihood of a lawsuit by:
A. hushing the company's search policies prior to the search.
B. searching employees' workplace without their knowledge.
C. using non-company personnel to conduct the search.
D. conducting random searches with or without a probable cause.
E. justifying that the organization has work rules that provide for searches.
Q:
Which of the following does an employer violate while terminating an employee for refusing to do something illegal, unethical, or unsafe?
A. Affirmative action
B. Public policy
C. Fair Representation
D. Equal opportunity employment
E. Reverse discrimination
Q:
The term pay refers to all forms of financial returns and tangible benefits that employees receive as part of an employment relationship.
Q:
List a few steps that organizations can take to eliminate the potentially adverse consequences of entrenchment.
Q:
A perception of _____ is a judgment that the organization carried out its actions in a way that took the employee's feelings into account.
A. interactional justice
B. employee turnover
C. sourcing
D. summary dismissal
E. scalability
Q:
List a few advantages and problems of E-mentoring.
Q:
People's perception of _____ is their judgment that fair methods were used to determine the consequences an employee receives.
A. interactional justice
B. expatriation
C. outcome fairness
D. procedural justice
E. labor law posting
Q:
List a few tips to help managers be more effective as coaches.
Q:
In the principles of justice followed in systems of disciplining, explanation, consideration, and empathy are features of _____.
A. retributive justice
B. interactional justice
C. distributive justice
D. benchmarking
E. summary dismissals
Q:
Explain the benefits of a career development system for an organization.
Q:
Thomas Fenton reprimanded five of his employees for coming to work drunk after a lunch outing. The next week, Thomas fired another employee for being drunk at work. The employees under Thomas can conclude a lack of _____ in dealing with employees being drunk at work.
A. benchmarking
B. outcome fairness.
C. summary dismissal
D. role underload
E. onboarding
Q:
Describe at least three problems that repatriates face in their companies and suggest how the company might solve the problem.
Q:
Although the rate of inflation is only 2 percent, Jessie receives a 6 percent increase in salary. She is nonetheless dissatisfied with her salary increase due to Norvins, whose job designation is similar to Jessies, 9 percent increase. Jessie is likely to contend that there is a lack of:
A. employment-at-will.
B. outcome fairness.
C. procedural justice.
D. interactional justice.
E. fair representation.
Q:
Describe several career development programs that are methods for evaluating employees' potential for growth and development within an organization.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about employee dismissal on the grounds of employment-at-will agreements?
A. They are likely to raise principles of justice issues.
B. Most employers stopped using these agreements during the 1990s.
C. The courts have declared these agreements as illegal.
D. Most employees see the agreements as equitable.
E. Employment-at-will agreements empower managers to discharge employees at their personal discretion.
Q:
Your organization has decided to develop a career development system and you have been asked to lead this project. What steps would you take to develop such a system?
Q:
People's perception of _____ depends on their judgment that the consequences of a decision to employees are just.
A. employment-at-will
B. procedural justice
C. fair representation
D. arbitration
E. outcome fairness
Q:
Which of the following is true about career development?
Career development is:
A) a stand alone program, independent of the corporate strategy and other HR activities
B) useful and important at the beginning of an individuals career, but not necessary for mid-level managers or average performers
C) focused primarily on the strengths and weaknesses of the organization, and structured around corporate strategy
D) linked to both organizational and individual performance, and both short and long term goals
E) an exercise that stems from the wish list of the employees promotional aspirations, not actual performance and realistic goals.
Q:
An employee refuses an employer's request to falsify the contents of a report to the EEOC. The employer subsequently discharges the worker for "not following orders." Identify the exception to the at-will-employment doctrine that the employee is like to choose when he/she files a wrongful discharge suit.
A. Equal employment
B. Public policy
C. Implied contract
D. Reverse discrimination
E. Affirmative action
Q:
Historically, if the organization and employee do not have a specific employment contract, the employer or employee may end the employment relationship at any time. This is referred to as the _____ doctrine.
A. force majeure
B. laissez faire
C. employment-at-will
D. due process
E. implied in fact
Q:
Which of the following is TRUE about entrenched employees?
A) The organization should understand that this is a natural progression in a career and there is nothing to be done except wait it out.
B) Career planning is not a solution to entrenchment. Employees need to have stability and preserve their positions.
C) One method to decrease entrenchment and the negative organizational impact, is to offer severance and portability of benefits to employees
D) Employee who have become entrenched need to continue to focus on their current job and stick with what they do best
E) Managers should focus on their newest employees and not waste resources on employees with long service.
Q:
Your company is reorganizing based on an alignment with the introduction of a new strategy and product offering. You will be prepared to be a part of the new structure if you?
A) Maintain your current skill set and rigidly adhere to your personal definition of your job
B) Keep focused on ensuring that your current job remains relevant through the reorganization
C) Stay true to individual contribution, ensuring that management is aware of the work you do on an individual basis
D) Be careful not to look too far in the future, focus on past lessons and accomplishments
E) Develop self knowledge and remain adaptable and flexible in your skill set, and your definition of career
Q:
When employees initiate a turnover, when the organization would prefer to keep them, it is called _____ turnover.
A. dysfunctional
B. involuntary
C. retentive
D. external
E. voluntary
Q:
Terminating an employee for the use of illegal drugs is an example of a(n) _____ turnover.
A. retentive
B. external
C. voluntary
D. absenteeism
E. involuntary
Q:
Tips for managers to be better coaches include the following EXCEPT:
A) Support the employees learning by asking them about the actions they have taken and how successful they were.
B) Provide positive feedback to employee regarding the career development steps taken by the employee.
C) Outline minimum performance requirements you expect of the employee in their current job.
D) Help employee to work on easiest career goal first.
E) Actively listen to the employee.
Q:
Programs that provide information on an organization's policies, procedures, rules, work requirements, and other sources of information are called __________
A) orientation programs
B) socialization programs
C) executive coaching programs
D) repatriation programs
E) supervisor training programs
Q:
HR professionals can help make exit interviews more successful by arranging for the departing employee to talk to his/her supervisor.
Q:
The Job Descriptive Index is an example of a job satisfaction instrument.
Q:
A number of organizational change initiatives can affect an individual's career. These include the following EXCEPT:
A) downsizing
B) competency re-measurement
C) IT innovations
D) work-family balance
E) reorganizations
Q:
Job satisfaction of employees remains unaffected from organizational changes such as mergers.
Q:
The two primary sets of people in an organization who most affect job satisfaction are co-workers and customers.
Q:
All of the following are benefits of a career development system EXCEPT:
A) evaluation of career tools and practices.
B) realistic staff and development planning.
C) helpful assistance with career decisions.
D) clarification of goals of the organization.
E) enhanced reputation s a people developer.
Q:
The Fair Labor Standards Act exempts managers and professionals from its requirement that the company pay overtime to employees who work more than a 40-hour week.
Q:
Which of the following uses questions and exercises to guide individuals in determining their strengths and weaknesses, job and career opportunities, and necessary steps for achieving their goals?
A) Succession planning
B) Realistic recruitment
C) Career workbooks
D) Skills inventory
E) Career center
Q:
Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, an employer may need to grant a clinically depressed employee time off or a flexible schedule to accommodate treatment.
Q:
What type of career program includes workshops designed to show individuals how to become successful job seekers?
A) Succession planning
B) Anticipatory socialization programs
C) Outplacement programs
D) Promotability forecasts
E) Realistic recruitment
Q:
Job satisfaction is always based on an objective and complete measurement of the situation and not on perception.
Q:
Which of the following is an organizational assessment program?
A) Succession planning
B) Realistic recruitment
C) Career workbooks
D) Skills inventory
E) Career center
Q:
Personal dispositions do not play a role in creating job satisfaction.
Q:
Your company has headquarters is in Boston, however, 20 employees devoted to sales are in 10 offices spread throughout the northeast. Senior management is interested in providing career development to the sales employees. They should consider ____ as their most likely solution.
A) Job-sharing
B) Psychological assessment
C) Employee orientation
D) a career library
E) E-mentoring
Q:
Job involvement is a judgment that the organization carried out its actions in a way that took the employees feelings into account.
Q:
A company is concerned about the fact that a senior manager is planning to retire in 2 years. The most direct way to be prepared to have a replacement of the retiree is to:
A) Have all employees complete career workbooks within the next two weeks
B) Implement a succession planning process
C) Schedule mid level manager for career planning workshops
D) Train managers to conduct one-on-one career counseling
E) Distribute a copy of What Color is my Parachute to all employees
Q:
If an employee disputes policies on the grounds that they violate state and federal laws, he/she can go outside the organization for help to file a lawsuit.
Q:
All of the following are information services used to compile and communicate career-related information EXCEPT:
A) job-posting systems
B) skills inventories
C) career ladders
D) succession planning
E) career resource centers
Q:
Role conflict is uncertainty about what the organization and others expect from the employee in terms of what to do or how to do it.
Q:
Mentoring involves someone who:
A) Monitors an employees performance in doing their job and provides a ranking of performance
B) Develops an employee in a particular area, for instance providing training in an area of identified deficiency
C) Takes a personal interest in an individuals career and who guides and sponsors the individual
D) Provides training in areas of interest to an employee
E) Develops multiple networking relationships in order to allow an employee to positively transition from one organization to another due to downsizing
Q:
When employees are unclear about work methods, scheduling, and performance criteria because others hold different ideas about these, they are likely to suffer from role ambiguity.
Q:
Which of the following is the most important predictor of future salary?
A) Sponsorship by a colleague
B) Work experience
C) Political knowledge
D) Hours worked
E) Education level
Q:
Which of the following is a definition of a career development system?
A) An organizational process which involves preparing, implementing, and monitoring career plans undertaken by an individual alone or within the organization's career systems.
B) A formal, organized, planned effort to achieve a balance between individual career needs and organizational workforce requirements.
C) An attempt by an individual to become more aware of his or her own skills, interests, values, opportunities, constraints, choices, and consequences.
D) An individually perceived sequence of attitudes and behaviors associated with work-related activities and experiences over the span of a person's life.
E) A process that has an "internal" and an "external" focus.
Q:
Core self-evaluation refers to pervasive low levels of satisfaction in all aspects of life, compared with other people's feelings.
Q:
Which of the following is a definition of career planning?
A) An organizational process which involves preparing, implementing, and monitoring career plans undertaken by an individual alone or within the organization's career systems.
B) A formal, organized, planned effort to achieve a balance between individual career needs and organizational workforce requirements.
C) An attempt by an individual to become more aware of his or her own skills, interests, values, opportunities, constraints, choices, and consequences.
D) An individually perceived sequence of attitudes and behaviors associated with work-related activities and experiences over the span of a person's life.
E) A process that has an "internal" and an "external" focus.
Q:
Job withdrawal is a set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid the work situation physically, mentally, or emotionally.
Q:
Which of the following is a definition of career management?
A) An organizational process which involves preparing, implementing, and monitoring career plans undertaken by an individual alone or within the organization's career systems.
B) A formal, organized, planned effort to achieve a balance between individual career needs and organizational workforce requirements.
C) An attempt by an individual to become more aware of his or her own skills, interests, values, opportunities, constraints, choices, and consequences.
D) An individually perceived sequence of attitudes and behaviors associated with work-related activities and experiences over the span of a person's life.
E) A process that has an "internal" and an "external" focus.
Q:
The availability of outplacement counseling while an employee is being encouraged to leave the organization, promotes a sense of fairness on discharge.