Q&A Hero

Q: When a union sympathizer seeks and gains employment at a non-unionized company with the intent of laying the ground work for a union certification election, this is known as _____. A) election arbitration B) mediation C) a yellow dog agreement D) an impasse resolution E) Salting

Q: Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the U.S. labor relations system relative to systems in most other countries? A) The U.S. is unusual in that more than one union may represent the same workers. B) The U.S. government plays a more active role in labor relations and dispute resolution compared to other countries. C) In other countries the relationship between the union and management is generally adversarial, while in the U.S. the relationship is more cooperative. D) In the U.S. there is decentralized collective bargaining, while other countries rely primarily on industry-wide negotiation. E) In the U.S. the unions emphasize political issues to a greater degree.

Q: __________ requires that a hearing be held within 10 days after an appeal is made. A) Grievance mediation B) Mediation C) Miniarbitration D) Written grievance E) Impasse resolution

Q: The National Railworkers Union (NRU) and Norfolk-Southern Railway (NSR) have been bargaining over a new labor contract for several weeks. However, the negotiations have reached a deadlock and the NRU is threatening to strike. At this point both parties should do which of the following? A) Bring in an arbitrator to settle the differences and recommend a course of action. B) Bring court action against the other party. C) Call in a mediator to review the dispute and suggest compromises. D) Agree to the strike. E) Use miniarbitration.

Q: An arbitrator must take into account all of the following when forming a decision EXCEPT: A) Precedents that have been established in previous cases. B) Whether the employee was accorded due process. C) Recent laws. D) The facts of the current case. E) Whether the employer had just cause for any actions taken against the complainant.

Q: Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding arbitration? A) If a grievance cannot be settled, both sides agree on an arbitrator to decide the matter. B) Arbitration is a last resort if attempts to settle grievance disputes have failed. C) Arbitration can be very costly. D) Arbitration is more costly in comparison to strikes and lockouts. E) A major criticism of arbitration is the problem of delays which can take place.

Q: In signing a binding arbitration policy, an employee: A) can still file charges in federal courts. B) can veto the decision of the arbitrator. C) has to submit his/her complaint to the arbitration process. D) can, with the help of the arbitrator, reach a consensus agreement with the company regarding the grievance. E) can require the company to pay for the arbitration process.

Q: Which of the following is illegal under the Taft-Harley act? A) Strike B) Picketing C) Primary boycott D) Secondary boycott E) Lockout

Q: The Coal Miners National Union (CMNU) has decided to give up some of the advantages it has gained for the past five years in an attempt to avoid a lay off of several hundred coal miners at a local coal mine. This sort of tactic is called: A) distributive bargaining. B) impasse resolution. C) concessionary bargaining. D) unmediated arbitration. E) binding arbitration.

Q: Each of the following is an administrative collective bargaining issue EXCEPT: A) seniority. B) employee discipline and discharge procedures. C) work rules. D) union security. E) job security.

Q: Each of the following is an institutional collective bargaining issue EXCEPT: A) rights and duties of employers. B) union security. C) quality of work life programs. D) check-off procedures. E) two-tier wage systems.

Q: Pension plans, paid vacations and holidays, health insurance plans, dismissal pay, reporting pay, and supplementary unemployment benefits (SUBs) are examples of which of the following collective bargaining issues? A) Wage-related collective bargaining issues B) Supplementary economic benefits issues C) Institutional issues D) Administrative issues E) Concessionary bargaining

Q: A(n) __________ is a formal agreement between a union and management which specifies conditions of employment for a certain period of time. A) labor contract B) contract negotiation C) master agreement D) arbitration settlement E) document

Q: Workers at the MJR Steel Mill have recently begun efforts to unionize. Who of the following is the MOST likely to welcome the unionization effort? A) An economist who consults for the firm. B) The vice-president in charge of production. C) A corporate stockholder. D) A factory line steelworker. E) Engineers.

Q: The __________ view maintains that unionization reduces worker quit rates, thereby leading to retention of experienced workers, lowering a firms training costs, and raising its productivity. A) collective voice B) ecological C) human resource D) monopoly E) enlightened

Q: The Civil Service Reform Act: A) mandates health coverage for all federal workers. B) legislates the organizational structure of unions. C) includes coverage of secondary boycotts. D) replaces the earlier Taft-Hartley Act. E) prohibits strikes by federal workers.

Q: The __________ was designed to protect workers from union corruption. A) Civil Rights Act of 1964 B) Wagner Act C) Landrum-Griffin Act D) The Fair Labor Reform Bill of 1978 E) The Fair Labor Standards Act

Q: According to NLRA: A) management cannot interfere with, restrain, or coerce employees in the exercise of their rights to organize, bargain collectively. B) management cannot dominate or interfere with the formation or administration of any labor organization. C) management cannot encourage or discourage membership in any labor organization by discrimination with regard to hiring. D) management cannot refuse to bargain collectively with representatives of the employees. E) management can discharge or otherwise discriminate against an employee because he or she has filed charges or given testimony.

Q: Right-to-work laws declare that: A) management cannot interfere with or restrain workers in their right to organize. B) union security agreements which require membership as a condition of employment are illegal. C) unions can not discriminate against workers who do not participate in strikes. D) employers may not interfere with employee representation and collective bargaining rights. E) employers can interfere with employee representation.

Q: The __________ formally recognized workers right to organize and bargain collectively with representatives of their own choosing. A) Wagner Act B) Taft-Hartley Act C) Landrum-Griffin Act D) Norris-LaGuardia Act E) Americans with Disabilities Act

Q: Which of the following statements regarding unions is FALSE? A) Unions tend to not get involved in productivity improvement programs. B) Union membership has dropped substantially in the 1980s. C) Union influence is much greater outside of the U.S., particularly in Europe. D) Unions put constraints on many HR decisions such as compensation, promotion, demotion, and termination. E) Employees believe that unions can actually improve conditions and, in particular, can have an impact at their own workplace.

Q: International labor relations is complicated due to differences in the role of governments, religions and political agendas from one county to another.

Q: Unlike the U.S., in Europe, more than one union, may represent the same workers.

Q: An example of unions cooperating with management is the retraining of employees to diminish the need for layoffs and downsizing.

Q: In general public sector employees have more bargaining power than private sector employees.

Q: The future of unionization in the U.S. is positive, especially with legislative and political forces in favor of unions.

Q: Distributive bargaining is the most common type of bargaining in which both sides try to reach a mutually beneficial alternative or a win-win solution.

Q: The intent of miniarbitration is to expedite a decision after an appeal is made.

Q: An arbitrators role is to make a ruling that is final and binding upon both parties.

Q: Grievance procedures generally establish the specified number of working days within which the grievance must be taken to the next step in the hearing.

Q: Primary boycott refers to the union trying to induce third parties, such as suppliers and customers, to refrain from any business dealings with an employer with whom it has a dispute.

Q: One risk of striking is that replacement employees could vote the union out in an NLRB-conducted decertification election.

Q: Mediators act as go-betweens between the parties to help clarify the issues but that they have no conclusive power or authority to impose a legally binding solution.

Q: Distributive bargaining involves a union giving back to management some of what it has gained in previous bargaining.

Q: Concessionary bargaining is also called interest-based bargaining.

Q: Institutional issues in collective bargaining include issues such as pension plans, paid vacations and holidays, health insurance plans, dismissal pay, reporting pay, and supplementary unemployment benefits (SUB).

Q: Good-faith bargaining means that either party is required to agree to a final proposal or to make concessions.

Q: Collective bargaining occurs when representatives of a labor union meet with management representatives to determine employees wages and benefits, to create or revise work rules, and to resolve disputes or violations of the labor contract.

Q: While it is true that unionized workers have higher base pay than non-unionized workers, the same cannot be said for the level of benefits received by unionized workers, who generally have fewer benefits than their peers in nonunion organizations.

Q: In the event that a union is not accepted, another certification election can be held within 12 months.

Q: The Civil Service Reform Act (CSRA) of 1978 is applicable to the railroad industry employees, airline workers, and federal employees.

Q: The Taft-Hartley Act of 1947 prohibits union discrimination against workers who do not want to participate in union activities, including strikes.

Q: NLRA describes what constitutes unfair labor practices by employers. Prohibited activities include bargaining in good faith with employee representatives.

Q: If an employee believes that they have individual influence at work and are protected against unfair treatment by their managers, they will be less likely to join a union.

Q: The Taft-Hartley Act was designed to protect workers rights to organize and join unions.

Q: A desire to have more influence in effecting change in the work environment is one of the general reasons why workers join unions.

Q: What is survivor syndrome and what measures can organizations take to avoid it?

Q: Discuss the pros and cons of each of the four forms of organizational exit. What are some best practices associated with each?

Q: What are the differences between punishment and discipline approaches to handling employee misconduct? All things considered, which is the better approach? The definition of both approaches should be evident in your answer.

Q: What are the two internal forces governing the ongoing working relationship? Explain how each affects the maintenance of the employment relationship.

Q: How would you handle an internal and external whistleblower within your organization?

Q: What steps would you take in creating a realistic job preview? What types of information would be gathered? What measures would you take to avoid the downside of RJPs, losing good candidates to firms that are taking more of the flypaper approach?

Q: It is hypothesized that Realistic Job Previews reduce employee turnover for four reasons. Describe and explain these four reasons.

Q: What are some reasons - societal, technological, strategic -- behind the use of flexible work arrangements? Do you believe that work arrangements will become more complex or stabilize over time?

Q: Describe the two forms of organizational justice and give an example of organizational actions that can be used to create perceptions of each type of justice.

Q: Which is more important, procedural or distributive justice? Why?

Q: Grace has been working for Acme Company for over 4 years. Acme recently conducted a compensation audit. As a result of the audit, some employees received pay increases and some did not. Grace believes there was bias in the procedures governing the salary decisions. What is Grace concerned with? A) Distributive Justice B) Interpersonal Justice C) Fair Justice D) Procedural Justice E) Ethical Justice

Q: You are concerned that your employees are afraid to report ethical violations to management. In order to increase the likelihood of unethical activity being reported, which of the following would you suggest your company adopt? A) Strict punishment guidelines for not reporting unethical behavior. B) Ending managerial training to decrease paranoia. C) Encouraging informal discussion of ethics versus formal training D) Increasing the use of exit interviews. E) Formal training for all employees in ethical decision-making.

Q: _____ requires organizations to give affected employees 60 days notice of a plant closing or when mass layoffs are expected: A) Covenant of good faith and fair dealing B) An early retirement package C) The Fair Ethics Act D) The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act E) The collective bargaining agreement

Q: The difference between punishment and discipline is: A) Punishment is focused on positive encouragement B) Discipline is forward focused and aimed at developing positive behavior C) Discipline is focused on the past and comparing performance among employees D) Punishment is always the preferred reaction E) Punishment allows for positive rewards to improve behavior

Q: A manager counsels an employee about problems with frequent tardiness. In spite of the discussion the employee is late to work twice the following week. What should be the next step in the discipline process? A) Written warning B) Early retirement package C) Termination D) Verbal warning E) Time off without pay

Q: Organizations use all of the following ways to terminate an employee EXCEPT: A) Downsizing B) Early retirement package C) Layoffs D) Progressive Discipline E) Outplacement programs

Q: __________ is a formal, written complaint about the way in which an employment relationship is being carried out. A) Discipline program B) Grievance C) Covenant of fair dealings D) Punishment procedure E) Performance appraisal

Q: __________ requires organizations to give affected employees 60 days written notice of when a plant will close or when mass layoff are expected. A) Covenant of good faith and fair dealing B) Collective bargaining agreement C) Fair Ethics Act D) Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act E) Covenant of disclosure

Q: The concept of __________ provides that employees have a duty to protect confidential information. A) implied contract B) covenant of nondisclosure C) The Fair Ethics Act D) whistleblowing E) public policy

Q: Reporting misconduct by individuals either inside or outside of the organization to people who have the power to take action is known as: A) Implied contract B) Covenant of nondisclosure C) Fair Ethics Act D) Whistleblowing E) Public policy

Q: Under employment-at-will, it is unlawful to terminate an employee if a __________ of employment exists. A) implied contract B) covenant of good faith and fair dealing C) non-compete D) collective bargaining agreement E) public policy agreement

Q: The exception of an employment-at-will doctrine that includes whistle-blowing is: A) Implied contract. B) Covenant of good faith and fair dealing C) Fair Ethics Act D) Collective bargaining agreement E) Public policy

Q: The process by which an individual comes to appreciate the values, abilities, expected behaviors and social knowledge essential for assuming an organizational role and for participating as an organizational member is known as: A) Mentoring B) Job sharing C) Orientation D) Employment-at-will E) Socialization

Q: __________ is an informal process of learning how to operate within an organization. A) Orientation B) Mentoring C) Job sharing D) Employment-at-will E) Socialization

Q: Employees can leave the employ of a company voluntarily through all of the following except: A) Resignation B) Letter giving two weeks notice C) Retirement D) Progressive Discipline E) None of the above

Q: Information provided by recruiters, interviewers, the company internet site and candid interviews with job incumbents provides candidates with a(n) _______. A) realistic job preview B) job analysis C) job classification D) work process mapping E) internal scanning

Q: All of the following have been shown to be disadvantages to using a compressed workweek EXCEPT: A) Increase in employee fatigue. B) Increased tardiness and absenteeism. C) Understaffing. D) Difficulty in coordinating team projects. E) Difficulty scheduling meetings.

Q: An arrangement that allows employees to work fewer days but longer hours is called __________. A) flextime B) compressed workweek C) job sharing D) job rotation E) permanent part-time work

Q: An arrangement that allows two people to divide the responsibilities of a regular, fulltime job is called __________. A) job sharing B) compressed workweek C) flexplace D) permanent part-time work E) alternative work scheduling

Q: One disadvantage to using flextime is: A) Increased absenteeism. B) The difficulty in scheduling meetings. C) It often puts additional stress on dual-career families. D) Increased turnover. E) It doesnt cover companys core times.

Q: __________ is an arrangement by which the employee has latitude over the preferred hours he/she wants to work, as long as he/she is present during the core hours of the work day. A) Flextime B) Compressed workweek C) Job sharing D) Flexplace E) WFH

Q: Which of the following could be an exception to the employent at-will concept? A) An employee who does not have an employment contract is terminated B) There is mutual agreement between employer and employee to severe the relationship C) An employee is terminated for filing a workers compensation claim D) An employee is fired for violation of a company policy E) Firing an employee for gross misconduct

Q: What are the advantages of classifying a worker as a contractor to the organization? A) No relationship to manage and wont have to pay benefits. B) Wont have to pay benefits and less government interference. C) Wont have to pay benefits and wont have to pay payroll taxes. D) No relationship to manage and wont have to pay payroll taxes. E) Less government interference and wont have to pay payroll taxes.

Q: __________ is a perception of fair rule, laws or policies that allocate valued rewards and punishments. A) Distributive justice B) Procedural justice C) People (employee) justice D) Demanded justice E) Defined justice