Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Human Resource
Q:
Which the following are examples of secondary dimensions of diversity?
a. Marital status, age and physical abilities
b. First language, communication style and religion
c. Appearance, income and gender
d. Mental ability, income and ethnicity
Q:
Conflict can best be defined as a. two or more parties wanting the same thing but their wants are incompatible in some way. b. a non-emotional response to an issue. c. unnecessary stubbornness on the part of management. d. what always happens when organizations become more diverse.
Q:
Which of the following statements is/are true according to Parkers article, The Emotional Connection
of Distinguishing Differences and Conflict?
a. Peoples differences present opportunities for organizations to be more creative.
b. Differences always lead to negative conflicts no matter how hard we try to avoid them.
c. Emotional intelligence is needed to make conflicts have positive outcomes.
d. a & c
Q:
McIntoshs White Privilege article
a. only pertains to understanding racial differences.
b. points out that it is difficult for us to see our own unearned advantages.
c. is sexist.
d. no longer is valid because today everyone has equal opportunities.
Q:
According to the Body Ritual Among the Nacirema reading, which of the following is false? a. All cultures are different. b. Our own culture becomes the standard against which we judge other cultures. c. The Naciremans have very different values and practices than North Americans. d. We seldom recognize how strange our own cultural practices may appear to outsiders.
Q:
Sherry is interviewing candidates for a high level position. She believes that all male managers have
poor people skills. Her belief, which could influence her hiring decision, is an example of __________.
a. a privilege
b. the truth
c. a stereotype
d. good judgment
Q:
The error of essentialism means that a. most of us have unearned privileges that we are unaware of having. b. diversity is essential to organizational success in the 21st century. c. essentially we are all alike under the skin. d. we explain a persons behavior according to only one social identity group membership, such as ethnicity.
Q:
Which of the following best defines the term, the business case for diversity?
a. Providing proof that having a diverse workforce can lower costs and increase profits.
b. People are defined by their primary and secondary social identities.
c. Having a more diverse workforce means your organization will always be more profitable.
d. Diverse employees tend to work for less money.
Q:
Which of the following is not an example of primary diversity?
a. Religion
b. Age
c. Ethnicity
d. Sexual orientation
Q:
Today, strategic organizational diversity is primarily about
a. obeying the Equal Opportunity laws.
b. striving for inclusion for all types of differences.
c. race and gender differences.
d. appealing only to diverse consumers by hiring a diverse workforce.
Q:
Diversity can become a competitive advantage to organizations because it has the potential to
a. decrease creative solutions to problems.
b. deter white men from applying for jobs that they know will go to women and minorities.
c. be an advantage in a global marketplace.
d. All of the above
Q:
Federal law provides compensation to workers for mental or nervous injury caused due to stress.
Q:
The benefits paid when an employee has lost work is typically about one-third of the regular average weekly wage.
Q:
One of the highlights of the Workers Compensation law applying to employees is that a petition for benefits must usually be filed within a year of the original decision.
Q:
The concept of liability without fault provides that workers who are victims of work-related injury or illness are granted benefits regardless of who is responsible for the accident, injury, or illness.
Q:
OSHAs has workplace standards for most potential hazards, with the exception of noise levels in the work place.
Q:
What are Employee Assistance Programs?
Q:
Discuss the four areas that organizations can use to reduce or eliminate unsafe behaviors at work.
Q:
Briefly explain the star, merit, and demonstration Voluntary Protection Programs (VPP). Also highlight the functions they perform.
Q:
List and explain three services that are offered by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration for assistance with the education and enforcement of health and safety standards.
Q:
Highlight the types of violations that may be cited and the penalties that may be proposed.
Q:
List the activities a COSHO is authorized to carry out.
Q:
Discuss some of the major responsibilities of OSHA.
Q:
What is the purpose of OSHA?
Q:
Highlight the conditions under which the law does not provide compensation.
Q:
Highlight some of the Workers Compensation law applying to employers.
Q:
You have been hired as a consultant to reduce your clients potential for workplace violence. You could suggest all of the following except
A) Increase role ambiguity
B) Introduce predictive selection methodology
C) Develop policies outlining a zero tolerance for violence
D) Conduct background checks on all new employees
E) Provide training to your managerial staff
Q:
An employee uses potentially hazardous chemicals in the course of doing their work. As a result, the employee occasionally contracts a minor rash. In this situation, according to OSHA the employer must
A) transfer the employee to a job without the harmful chemical.
B) inform the employee of the hazards associated with the job.
C) require the employee to secure a doctors permission to continue on the job
D) provide that employee to take special protection clothing.
E) fire the employee and pre-screen all candidates with a medical examination.
Q:
When an employee cuts a finger after removing the safety guard from his equipment to be able to cut faster, this is an example of an?
A) Unsafe working environment
B) Unrecognized hazard
C) Unsafe act
D) Observable bias
E) Unsafe work assignment
Q:
Which of the following has the top priority for OSHA inspection?
A) Random inspections
B) Re-inspections
C) High hazard industries
D) Imminent danger
E) Employee complaints
Q:
According to OSHA, which of the following needs to be recorded?
A) A disabled employee working in a potentially hazardous job.
B) An employee who trips and falls in the parking lot and requires the use of the first aid kit before going back to work.
C) When an employee suffers and injury at work that requires the employee to transfer to another job.
D) If an employee is new to a job and is at greater risk to injury than an employee with longer tenure.
E) Due to an employees overwhelming number of allergies they are sensitive to non- hazardous smells in the workplace.
Q:
A textile mill in its efforts to launch a wellness program for its employees should follow all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Launch simple programs such as blood pressure and cholesterol screening or distribute information about nutrition to employees.
B) Schedule events before work, during lunch, or after work so the activities do not take employees away from their regular duties.
C) Take advantage of community services.
D) Disallow employees to plan and implement activities and conduct a survey to assess employees health and recreational interests.
E) Find out what other firms in the area or industry have done and learn from their experiences.
Q:
Which of the following is true regarding ergonomics?
A) Employers need not worry about ergonomics issues because the standard was repealed by Congress.
B) Employers should take steps to solve ergonomics issues under the general duty clause.
C) Elder care programs are available under the standard.
D) Management need only spend 10% of the operating budget on ergonomic remedies.
E) Ergonomics is the process of handling injury cases that have resulted in loss of consciousness.
Q:
Which of the following does NOT lead to job stress?
A) Organizational downsizing
B) Job demands
C) Role ambiguity
D) Family responsibilities
E) Telecommuting
Q:
__________ is defined as a situation where job-related factors affect a workers psychological and/or physiological condition such that the person deviates from normal functioning.
A) Work sickness
B) Job stress
C) Job burnout
D) Environmental illness
E) Employee withdrawal
Q:
__________ is now a very common workers compensation claim in jobs involving essentially the same movements over and over again.
A) Rorschach Survey Interest
B) Research Survey Interest
C) Repetitive Stretch Injury
D) Repetitive Strain Injury
E) Research Safety Institute
Q:
Prolonged (20 hours or more) exposure to video display terminals has been associated with:
A) High levels of drug abuse.
B) Higher risks of miscarriage.
C) Hearing problems.
D) Speech problems.
E) Alcoholism.
Q:
Which of the following is an indicator of highly injurious level of workplace violence?
A) Pushing, fistfights
B) Theft
C) Sabotage
D) Psychological trauma
E) Major violations of company policy
Q:
The Guide to Workplace Smoking Policies recommends that employers should:
A) Ban smoking entirely from the workplace due to its negative consequences.
B) Not hire job applicants who smoke.
C) Create separate ventilated smoking areas.
D) Punish those employees who do not quit smoking within a six-month period.
E) Offer incentives to employees who try to quit smoking.
Q:
Companies should make sure that their drug testing policy includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Notice to employees (or applicants) that drug testing will be conducted and the procedures to be used.
B) A careful chain of custody to ensure that samples are not lost, mixed up, or switched.
C) A dignified but secure method of collecting samples.
D) Confirmation of all positive drug results with more sensitive tests.
E) Opportunity for the individual to not disclose which prescription or over-the-counter drugs he/she uses.
Q:
The right-to-know provision of OSHA specifies employees right to know if:
A) Someone they work with has a communicable disease.
B) Someone they work with has a violent history.
C) They are working with unsafe substances.
D) They are working with a sex offender.
E) They are working with unsafe machinery.
Q:
You are looking for a way to reduce or eliminate higher accident rates among younger workers. What is a safety intervention you might consider?
A) Hiring only candidates between the ages of 35 and 39.
B) Provide mandatory safety training for hazardous jobs.
C) Ensure that pay for performance plans only focus on quantity of work.
D) Provide training only post-accident.
E) Initiate a team based competition to increase production.
Q:
Employee rights under OSHA include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Filing safety or health grievances.
B) Complaining to an employer, union, OSHA, or any other government agency about job safety and health hazards.
C) Provide medical examinations when required by OSHA standards.
D) Participating on a workplace safety and health committee or in union activities concerning job safety and health.
E) Participating in OSHA inspections, conferences, hearings, or other OSHA-related activities.
Q:
Employer responsibilities under OSHA include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Refrain from discriminating against employees who properly exercise their rights under the act.
B) Employ color codes, posters, labels, or signs in several languages to warn employees of potential hazards.
C) Request a closing discussion with the compliance officer following an inspection.
D) Examine workplace conditions to ensure they conform to applicable standards.
E) Minimize or reduce safety and health hazards.
Q:
Merit Voluntary Protection Programs:
A) is the most demanding and most prestigious of the OSHA voluntary protection programs.
B) are designed for worksites with Star level quality safety and health protection to test alternatives to current Star eligibility and performance requirements.
C) motivate other companies to achieve excellent safety and health results in the same outstanding way.
D) is by far the most effective employee approach to safety.
E) is required under Workers Compensation.
Q:
In Marshall v. Barlows Inc. (1978), the Supreme Court ruled that:
A) employers with 25 or more employees must maintain records of occupational injuries and illnesses as they occur.
B) pre-employment screening for accident proneness is illegal.
C) the employer must develop job safety and health standards.
D) all public-sector employers must maintain safety records.
E) OSHA may not conduct warrantless inspections without an employers consent.
Q:
Occupational injuries must be recorded in all of the following instances EXCEPT when the injury results in:
A) a restriction of motion.
B) first aid treatment.
C) transfer to another job.
D) one or more lost workdays.
E) loss of consciousness.
Q:
Under OSHA requirements:
A) employers with 8 or more employees must maintain records of occupational injuries and illnesses as they occur.
B) all employers irrespective of the size of their organization must maintain records of occupational injuries and illnesses as they occur.
C) employers with 11 or more employees must maintain records of occupational injuries and illnesses as they occur.
D) employers in only those industries listed as most hazardous must keep records of occupational injuries and illnesses as they occur.
E) all unions must maintain safety records.
Q:
OSHA does NOT have responsibility for which of the following?
A) Developing enforceable standards.
B) Record keeping and reporting.
C) Inspection of the workplace.
D) Inspection of record-keeping forms.
E) Inspection of employee payslips.
Q:
Which of the following is associated with workers compensation?
A) Hazard communication
B) Right to know
C) Liability without fault
D) Comparable worth
E) Define contribution
Q:
Workers compensation is based upon the principle that, victims of a work-related injury or illness:
A) are granted benefits regardless of who is responsible for the accident, injury, or illness.
B) must prove that the employer directly or indirectly caused the accident, injury, or illness in order to receive benefits.
C) must sue the company in order to receive benefits.
D) are most likely to sue OSHA for wrongful-doing.
E) should be granted compensation only at the discretion of the employer and the union.
Q:
EAPS are a complimentary to drug testing programs, providing for voluntary treatment of employees who test positive during random drug testing, and training for mangers on making constructive confrontations.
Q:
Random drug testing is illegal under the Drug Free Workplace Act, companies are limited to pre-employment testing.
Q:
Selective hiring is achieved through the selective exclusion of high-risk employees.
Q:
In order to ensure a corporate culture that incorporates safety, attention needs to be on in three areas environment, behaviors and people.
Q:
One of the criticisms of OSHA is that its focus is on unsafe working conditions, and it pays little attention to employee behavior.
Q:
All employees, including workers who are self-employed and public employees in state and local government are covered under OSHA.
Q:
Voluntary Protection Program participants are subject to routine OSHA inspections.
Q:
A discretionary penalty of up to $7,000 may be enforced for each serious OSHA violation.
Q:
Penalties of up to $70,000 may be proposed for each willful OSHA violations, with a minimum penalty of $5,000 for each violation.
Q:
Occupational injuries resulting in loss of consciousness must be recorded to be in compliance with OSHA.
Q:
OSHA has responsibility for approving and monitoring state plans.
Q:
The purpose of OSHA does not include providing training programs to increase the number and competence level of occupational safety and health personnel.
Q:
The function of the Occupational Safety & Health Review Commission (OSHRC) agency is to issue standards, conduct inspections, citations, and variances.
Q:
The OSHA was created in 1990 to reduce occupational diseases and on-the-job injuries.
Q:
In civil law, negligence must be established through litigation before any compensation is awarded.
Q:
Briefly explain the three most common forms of bargaining.
Q:
List the major issues in collective bargaining.
Q:
List the steps involved in forming unions.
Q:
Briefly explain the aspects involved in preparing for labor contract negotiations.
Q:
The NLRA has described what constitutes unfair labor practices by employers. List a few of these prohibited activities.
Q:
Discuss several criticisms of the arbitration process and offer strategies designed to combat these criticisms.
Q:
Differentiate between picketing, striking, and boycotting an employer.
Q:
What are union effects on worker satisfaction?
Q:
Briefly discuss the two perspectives on the effects of labor unions.
Q:
As a manager of an organization, you have just become aware that some employees have initiated an effort to begin unionization. What are some of the actions that you might take to deter this effort?
Q:
If employees no longer want to be represented by their union, they may petition the NLRB for which of the following? A) Mini arbitration B) Deauthorization C) Contract bar D) Decertification E) Statutory bar
Q:
If a union has been successful in getting a majority of workers to sign authorization card, it may be in the companys best interest to consider ________ to recognize the union without a certification election.
A) Grievance mediation
B) a neutrality agreement
C) binding arbitration
D) interest based negotiation
E) Impasse resolution
Q:
Union recognition is most commonly a result of _______.
A) the outcome of arbitration
B) management count of authorization cards
C) NLRB order based on an unfair labor practice
D) an NLRB ordered election
E) impasse resolution mediation
Q:
A company has 2,000 eligible workers in a prospective bargaining unit. How many of these workers need to sign an authorization card before the NLRB will order an election?
A) 200
B) 600
C) 500
D) 201
E) 1001