Q&A Hero

Q: College grades are more valid predictors of job performance than high school grades.

Q: Research has found that level of education is moderately related to job performance.

Q: To protect an employer from charges of unfair discrimination, it is best to only include information related to KSAOs demonstrated as important to the job on an application blank.

Q: Video rsums have become a major component of selection in most large organizations.

Q: Rsum scanning software tends to look for nouns more than action verbs.

Q: Although employers can outsource rsum collection to rsum-tracking services, in practice this type of outsourcing is too inefficient to be worth the cost.

Q: A major problem with resumes and cover letters is lying.

Q: Contingent methods mean that the job offer is subject to certain qualifications, such as the offer receiver passing a medical exam or a drug test.

Q: A finalist is someone who has not yet received an offer, but who possesses the minimum qualifications to be considered for further assessment.

Q: Organizations are increasingly finding that the costs of developing a selection plan outweigh the benefits.

Q: The process of translating the results of a job analysis into actual predictors to be used for selection is known as a discriminant validity study.

Q: The first step in developing a selection plan is to list relevant KSAOs associated with a job.

Q: A power test is used when the speed of work is an important part of the job.

Q: The logic of prediction indicates that a point-to-point comparison needs to be made between requirements of the job be filled and the qualifications of the job applicants.

Q: Job analysis sometimes finds that seemingly unrelated jobs may have more in common than would be expected by relying just on job titles.

Q: Cost should not be used to guide the choice of initial assessment methods.

Q: External selection refers to the assessment and evaluation of external job applicants.

Q: Applicant stock statistics for groups under analysis require calculation of percentages for __________. A. unemployed workers B. measures of content validity C. availability in the population D. the reliability of a measure

Q: Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of _________. A. selection rates for the groups under analysis B. interview rates for the groups under analysis C. rejection rates for the groups under analysis D. range scores for the groups under analysis

Q: The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures require the calculation of selection rates for _________. A. every disability category currently assessed B. each job category C. the population at large D. all of these

Q: Administration instructions, scoring instructions, and normative data are included in a good _______________. A. test manual B. online posting system C. correlation estimate D. counterbalanced validation design

Q: Which of the following are absolutely necessary for maintaining test security? A. A method for disseminating information to the pool of candidates regarding the scores of other candidates B. A scoring key for the questionnaire provided to candidates after the test is completed C. Identical forms of the test for all test-takers D. Assurances that the test results will only be communicated by someone trained in how to interpret scores

Q: The case for validity generalization across situations becomes stronger if ____. A. correlation coefficients are negative B. the standard error of measurement is large C. differences in method and statistical differences are controlled D. reliability is low

Q: Content validation is most appropriate when _____________. A. reliability is too high B. sample size is large C. criterion measures are readily available D. sample size is too small for criterion validity calculation

Q: When predictor and criterion scores have been obtained, the predictor can be considered valid if ___________. A. the correlation coefficient has the desired practical and statistical significance B. the correlation coefficient has statistical significance alone C. the correlation coefficient is insignificant D. the correlation coefficient has practical significance alone

Q: Which of the following is a type of validity? A. test-retest B. coefficient alpha C. criterion D. parallel forms

Q: Validity of a measure is best defined as _________. A. the upper limit of reliability B. the degree to which the measure does indeed measure what it is intended to measure C. the lower limit of reliability D. the consistency of measurement

Q: The standard error of measurement allows _________. A. calculation of confidence intervals for true scores B. estimates of content validity C. calculation of confidence intervals for actual scores D. calculation of confidence intervals for error

Q: Which of the following is an example of contamination error? A. irrelevant material on the test B. guessing by the test taker C. different time limits for the same test D. all of these

Q: Contamination error _________. A. is easy to minimize and control B. is the same as deficiency error C. represents unwanted sources of influence on a measure D. shows a lack of an acceptable coefficient alpha

Q: Deficiency error would not indicate a failure to __________. A. measure some portion of the attribute of interest B. adequately define the attribute of interest C. construct a proper measure of the totality of the attribute D. calculate the standard deviation

Q: Reliability of a measure places _________. A. no limit on the validity of a measure B. a lower limit on the validity of a measure C. an average limit on the validity of a measure D. an upper limit on the validity of a measure

Q: Comparing the same supervisor's rating of an employee's performance at T1 to T2 is a method for assessing ______ reliability. A. intrarater B. fixed-point C. test-retest D. interrater

Q: Comparing objective scores from T1 to T2 is a method for assessing _____ reliability. A. maximal asymptotic B. internal consistency C. test-retest D. interrater

Q: Coefficient alpha assesses _____________. A. reliability within a single time period B. reliability between time periods C. reliability between samples D. test-retest reliability E. reliability within a single time period and reliability between time periods are correct

Q: Which of the following is a true statement? A. true score divided by error equals actual score B. actual score equals true score plus error C. actual score plus error equals true score D. true score equals variance plus error

Q: Reliability of measurement is defined as ___________. A. frequency of measurement B. magnitude of measurement C. accuracy of measurement D. consistency of measurement

Q: Which of the following levels of statistical significance would provide the most confidence that a sample correlation coefficient would not be interpreted as having a relationship in the population, when, in fact, there is no such relationship? A. .10 B. .50 C. .01 D. .05

Q: The proper test to determine that a given sample correlation is statistically significant as an estimate of a correlation in a population is the __________. A. z score B. standard deviation C. squared correlation coefficient D. the t test

Q: The larger the correlation coefficient, __________. A. the greater its practical significance B. the smaller its practical significance C. the larger its range D. the smaller its statistical significance

Q: A complete lack of correlation between two variables is expressed by a correlation coefficient of __________. A. .50 B. 1.00 C. -1.00 D. zero

Q: The correlation coefficient expresses __________. A. causality B. variance C. strength of the relationship between two variables D. the range between two variables

Q: A z score of 3.0 for a job applicant's score on an aptitude test indicates the applicant ______. A. achieved a score 3 points higher than the average score B. received a score 3 standard deviations above the mean score C. had a score 3 percent higher than the average score D. had a score plus or minus 3 points relative to the mean score

Q: Which of the following results represents statistically significance as it is commonly understood? A. r = .30 B. p < .05 C. r > .10 D. all of these

Q: The likelihood that a correlation exists in a population, based on knowledge of the actual value of r in a sample from that population is the _____________. A. practical significance B. likelihood ratio C. functional statistic D. statistical significance

Q: The variability of a measure is best captured by the ______________. A. mean and standard deviation B. range and standard deviation C. range and median D. mode and mean

Q: The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal data is the ______. A. mean B. median C. standard deviation D. mode

Q: Length in inches is an example of a(n) __________. A. ratio scale B. nominal scale C. ordinal scale D. interval scale

Q: Rankings of the finishes of competitors in a foot race is an example of a(n) ________. A. ratio scale B. ordinal scale C. interval scale D. none of these

Q: A scale in which a given attribute is categorized, and numbers are assigned to the categories, but there is no order or level implied among the categories. A. nominal B. ordinal C. interval D. ratio

Q: A scale in which objects are rank ordered according to how much of the attribute they possess, with equal space between objects? A. nominal B. ordinal C. interval D. ratio

Q: A scale in which objects are rank ordered according to how much of the attribute they possess? A. nominal B. ordinal C. interval D. ratio

Q: A nominal scale of measurement has _________. A. rank order B. an absolute true zero point C. classification by categories D. equal differences between points on a scale of measurement

Q: Which of the following statements about measurement is not correct? A. it assigns numbers to objects. B. it is based on rules determined in advance. C. it measures the object not the attribute. D. it measures constructs.

Q: The process of ensuring that all test takers receive the same tests in the same context, as a way to eliminate extraneous influences on test performance is called _____________________. A. standardization B. optimization C. rationalization D. inflation

Q: Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement? A. choosing an attribute of concern B. assessing the attribute's acceptability to applicants C. using the measure to gauge the attribute D. constructing a measure of the attribute

Q: The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures indicates that when a selection procedure shows adverse impact, the organization must either eliminate it or justify it through presentation of validity evidence.

Q: The use of standardized measurement eliminates the possibility of adverse impact occurring.

Q: Adverse impact statistics are very stable sample estimates of the amount of true adverse impact occurring in an organization.

Q: Investigation of applicant stock statistics is also known as "utilization analysis."

Q: When assessing adverse impact, the law prohibits taking sample size into account.

Q: According to the Uniform Guidelines for Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP), comparisons of selection rates among groups should be based on the 70% rule.

Q: Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of selection rates for groups and the subsequent comparison of those rates to determine if they are significantly different from each other.

Q: A test manual will typically include administration instructions, scoring instructions, and normative data.

Q: One way that retail organizations are making use of technology is by having electronic assessment at in-store kiosks.

Q: Internet-based tests are usually not as good as paper-and-pencil based tests for predicting future job performance.

Q: When assessing the quality of tests to be purchased, the only considerations to attend to are the qualifications of the firm and the standardization of procedures.

Q: One guideline for effective staffing practice is that all predictors should be routinely subjected to content validation.

Q: The assessment of concurrent validity is more convenient and more efficient than the assessment of predictive validity.

Q: The process of criterion-related validation begins with the identification of criterion measures.

Q: Organizations that collect assessment data need to attend to professional standards that govern their use.

Q: Even if methodological and statistical differences across criterion-related validation studies are not controlled for statistically, it is still probable that validity can be generalized from one specific situation to another.

Q: Criterion measures are not used in the calculation of content validity.

Q: Measuring the accuracy of a mechanical ability test in predicting the job performance of current employees involves a predictive validity design.

Q: The extent to which scores on a knowledge test truly reflect a job applicant's knowledge is a measure of the test's validity.

Q: Reliability sets the lower limit on validity.

Q: The standard error of measurement is a useful indicator of how accurate actual scores of applicants are in assessing the true scores of a given measure.

Q: A measure with a coefficient alpha of .55 should generally be regarding as having adequate reliability.

Q: If an attribute of job performance is "planning and setting work priorities," and the raters fail to rate people on that dimension during their performance appraisal, then the performance measure is contaminated.

Q: Asking different questions of job applicants during comparisons of interview ratings between these same job applicants is an example of contamination error.