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Q:
Which of the following is a typical justification of a BFOQ involving sex that employers use?
A. One sex has an inability to perform the work.
B. Personal contact with others requires same sex.
C. Customers have a preference for dealing with one sex.
D. All of these are potential justifications.
Q:
According to ADA, it is not permissible for employers to do which of the following at the pre-offer stage of assessment process?
A. Ask if the applicant has any disabilities.
B. Ask the applicant if he/she can perform the job, with or without reasonable accommodation.
C. Ask the applicant to demonstrate how they could perform the job.
D. None of these is permissible.
Q:
Which of the following is the law that governs the collection of background check information for employment purposes?
A. Americans with Disadvantaged Access Act
B. Fair Credit Reporting Act
C. Personnel Reporting Statue of 1977
D. National Labor Rights Act
Q:
Which of the following is true regarding pre-employment inquiries (PI)?
A. They have little potential for being used for discriminatory purposes in the assessment process.
B. Organizations rarely make inappropriate and illegal PIs.
C. It is critical for employers to understand the laws and regulations regarding PIs.
D. The emphasis in PIs is on the illegal collection of information.
Q:
Employers protect themselves in the initial stages of contact with job applicants through the use of ________.
A. labor contracts
B. employment clauses
C. disclaimers
D. discharge policies
Q:
Examples of initial assessment methods that have moderate degrees of adverse impact against women and/or minorities include _______.
A. education level
B. quality of school
C. training and experience
D. all of these are correct
Q:
A statement that identifies the rights than an employer wishes to maintain for itself that often accompanies initial employment assessments is called a _____.
A. providential statement
B. disclaimer
C. waiver
D. requisition
Q:
_________ refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protected-class members may be rejected using this predictor.
A. low reliability
B. adverse impact
C. utility
D. habeas corpus
Q:
An example of an assessment method which has relatively low reliability is _________.
A. biographical information
B. initial interviews
C. application blanks
D. resumes
Q:
The issue of consistency of measurement with assessment methods is called _______.
A. validity
B. reliability
C. variability
D. central tendency
Q:
One guideline for improving the effectiveness of initial interviews is to _____.
A. ask questions which assess the most basic KSAOs
B. make them long and rigorous
C. ask each applicant different questions
D. ask questions which assess the most basic KSAOs and make them long and rigorous are correct
Q:
Which of the following is true regarding genetic screening?
A. It helps to screen out people who will perform poorly on the job.
B. It is used widely by companies in the U.S.
C. It helps to screen out people who are susceptible to certain diseases.
D. A recent court decision has ruled that it is allowable under the Americans with Disabilities Act.
Q:
One of the major disadvantages of using handwriting analysis as an assessment method is that it is _______.
A. expensive
B. not related to job performance
C. easy to fake
D. inefficient
Q:
Background testing is concerned with the __________ of an applicant.
A. integrity
B. reliability
C. personal adjustments
D. all of these
Q:
The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's ___________.
A. former coworkers
B. HR department at his/her former employer
C. former supervisor
D. friends
Q:
One major problem with letters of recommendation is that they __________.
A. are too lengthy to be useful
B. are not structured or standardized
C. are too ambiguous to interpret
D. all of these are correct
Q:
Research has indicated that job applicants generally have a __________ view of biodata inventories.
A. very positive
B. negative
C. positive
D. neutral
Q:
Which of the following methods is the most valid predictor of performance?
A. Initial interviews
B. Handwriting analysis
C. Biodata
D. Unweighted application blanks
Q:
The information collected for an accomplishments record includes _______.
A. a written statement of the accomplishment
B. when the accomplishment took place
C. any recognition for the accomplishment
D. all of these
Q:
The problem with using _____ for hiring purposes is that only very poor applicants cannot obtain these, and the format is unstandardized.
A. certifications
B. biodata forms
C. letters of recommendation
D. MBAs
Q:
Which of the following is a criterion on which biodata items can be classified?
A. historical vs. nonverifiable
B. invasive vs. firsthand
C. objective vs. subjective
D. equal access vs. easy access
Q:
Biographical information is like application blanks, except ________.
A. biographical information is based on history, but application blanks are based on current events
B. application blanks are more likely to be used for substantive selection decisions
C. biographical data is more likely to be accepted by applicants
D. biographical data can be more fruitfully used for substantive selection decisions
Q:
Which of the following is true regarding biodata and background tests?
A. Background information is obtained through interviews and conversations with references.
B. They are two different names for the same thing.
C. Only background tests look into an applicant's past.
D. Biodata is used primarily when screening applicants for positions in which integrity and emotional adjustment are necessary.
Q:
The principal assumption behind the use of biodata is the axiom, _________.
A. The best predictor of future behavior is motivation level
B. The best predictor of future behavior is KSAOs
C. The best predictor of future behavior is education level
D. The best predictor of future behavior is past behavior
Q:
Research on application blanks has suggested that the most common questions that are misinterpreted include __________.
A. previous employers
B. reasons for leaving previous jobs
C. previous positions held
D. all of these are true
Q:
The highest estimate of validity coefficients of unweighted applicant banks as predictors of job performance are __________.
A. 1.00
B. .80
C. .20
D. .60
E. .40
Q:
Asking applicants to complete a supplemental application in which they describe their most significant accomplishments relative to a list of job behaviors is known as the ________.
A. behavioral consistency method
B. experiential summary method
C. biodata approach
D. none of these
Q:
When considering the use of extracurricular activities as a job performance predictor, one should __________.
A. use extracurricular activities whenever possible
B. de-emphasize the use of extracurricular activities
C. use extracurricular activities mainly for selection of managerial personnel
D. use extracurricular activities when they correlate with KSAOs required by the job
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding the use of grade point averages as a predictor is(are) true?
A. GPA may be influenced by many factors in addition to the applicant's KSAOs and motivation.
B. GPAs in one's major tend to be highly similar to one's GPAs in other classes.
C. Grades do not vary widely by field.
D. GPAs from different schools mean the same thing.
Q:
In using educational level as an initial selection criterion, which of the following statements is false?
A. The degree received from an institution is not sufficient as a sole indicator of an applicant's level of education.
B. A GED is a high school equivalency degree and is about as good as a conventional high school diploma in predicting job performance.
C. Educational level is a predictor of job performance.
D. High-level degrees from non-accredited schools may be indicators of lesser accomplishment than lower-level degrees from accredited schools.
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding rsums is true?
A. Even background checks cannot reduce the problem of rsum fraud
B. Most surveys suggest that around half of all rsums have substantial inaccuracies or distortions
C. Video rsums are highly respected by most employers
D. Extensive evidence suggests that rsums are highly accurate predictors of employee job performance
Q:
Which of the following are common sources of rsum fraud?
A. inflated titles
B. inflated education or "purchased" degrees
C. inaccurate dates to cover up job hopping or unemployment
D. all of these
Q:
Which of the following is(are) initial assessment methods?
A. Rsums and cover letters
B. Application blanks
C. Biographical information
D. All of these
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding the development of a selection plan is false?
A. The list of KSAOs used in the selection plan are derived from the job requirements matrix
B. The process of developing a selection plan is usually straightforward and can be done quickly
C. One reason KSAOs may be deemed unimportant for selection is because they will be learned on the job
D. Possible methods for assessing every identified job-relevant KSAO need to be developed
Q:
Most initial assessment methods have _________ validity.
A. moderate to low
B. high to very high
C. moderately high to high
D. moderate
Q:
The strength of the relationship between a predictor and performance is called _________.
A. reliability
B. validity
C. utility
D. instrumentality
Q:
The most accurate description of the basic purpose of a selection plan is _______________.
A. a selection plan determines the means for attracting qualified job applicants
B. a selection plan matches applicants to outcome criteria
C. a selection plan describes predictors to be used to assess KSAOs required to perform the job
D. a selection plan consists of interview rating criteria
Q:
Essay tests are best used to assess ___________ skills.
A. oral communication
B. written communication
C. interpersonal
D. none of these
Q:
If the correctness of a response is essential for a job, then a(n) ________ test should be used.
A. essay
B. speed
C. power
D. objective
Q:
Which of the following is necessary for the logic of prediction to work in practice for selecting employees?
A. the organization has adopted a thorough competency modeling approach
B. qualifications carry over from one job to another
C. that each candidate is assessed based on his or her unique experiences
D. anonymous periodic reviews of applicant files to ensure accuracy
Q:
Within the context of the selection process, the "logic of prediction" means that:
A. indicators of an applicant's future performance are predictive of likely job performance
B. indicators of a person's degree of success in past situations should be predictive of future job success
C. predictors of job performance are correlated with KSAOs
D. indicators of job outcomes can be used to predict job performance
Q:
The burden of proof is on employers to defend BFOQ claims.
Q:
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act explicitly permits discrimination on the basis of sex, religion, or national origin if it can be shown to be a bona fide occupational qualification.
Q:
The Americans with Disabilities Act states that employers may not ask disability-related questions and may not conduct medical examinations until after it makes a conditional job offer to a person.
Q:
Adverse impact refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protect class members may be rejected using a given predictor.
Q:
Bona fide occupational qualification claims made on the basis of customer preferences are typically upheld by the courts.
Q:
Bona fide occupational qualifications are not of relevance to the initial assessment phase.
Q:
It is illegal to use pre-employment inquiry information that has a disparate impact on the basis of a protected characteristic, unless such disparate impact can be shown to be job-related and consistent with business necessity.
Q:
Although arrest information may be gathered in the process of doing a background check, it cannot be used in staffing decisions.
Q:
The laws in most states provide employers with little protection if they provide any information in a reference check that might damage an applicant's chances of getting a job.
Q:
Failure to conduct a reference check opens an organization to the possibility of a negligent hiring suit.
Q:
Employers are advised to let applicants know in advance that they reserve the right to not hire, terminate, or discipline prospective employee for providing false information during the selection process.
Q:
Disclaimers are used as a means of protecting employer rights.
Q:
Level of education requirements have little adverse impact against minority applicants.
Q:
The most frequently used methods of initial assessment are education level, training and experience, reference checks, and initial interview.
Q:
Most initial assessment methods have moderate to low validity.
Q:
Initial interviews can be made more useful by asking the same questions of all job applicants.
Q:
The initial interview is the least expensive method of initial assessment.
Q:
The purpose of the initial interview is to screen out the most obvious cases of person/job mismatches.
Q:
Genetic screening is becoming a valuable component of many organizations' selection systems.
Q:
The proportion of organizations that conduct pre-hire background checks to determine if employees have criminal records or inaccurate reporting on rsums, has risen dramatically in recent years.
Q:
Surveys suggest that only 3 out of 10 organizations conduct reference checks.
Q:
Many organizations are reluctant to give out detailed reference information regarding their former employees because they are afraid of being sued.
Q:
The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's former colleagues who worked in the same position.
Q:
One study that showed there was a stronger correlation between two letters written by one person for two different applicants than between two different people writing letters for the same person.
Q:
Letters of recommendation are an excellent way to help organizations separate highly qualified from moderately qualified applicants.
Q:
Research shows that applicants have a favorable attitude toward biodata inventories.
Q:
Biographical information tends to have low reliability.
Q:
Research on the reliability and validity of biodata has been quite positive.
Q:
Research suggests that biodata does not provide incremental validity over personality and cognitive ability.
Q:
Biodata items are generally the same, regardless of the job being staffed.
Q:
Biodata is like a background check in many ways, but background checks tend to focus on external references rather than applicant surveys.
Q:
Biodata refers to medical or physiological tests of applicants prior to hiring.
Q:
The principal assumption behind the use of biodata in selection processes is the axiom, "the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior."
Q:
Most organizations use only weighted application blanks for initial screening decisions.
Q:
The validity evidence for weighted application blanks is better than that for unweighted application blanks.
Q:
Scored evaluations of unweighted application blanks are good predictors of job performance.
Q:
Occupational certification helps guard against the misuse of job titles in human resource selection.
Q:
Occupational certifications are nearly all regulated by the Department of Labor to ensure that they accurately reflect job knowledge.
Q:
Research suggests that the quality of the school a person graduates from makes a difference in the labor market.