Q&A Hero

Q: Contingent workers are primarily clerical positions filled with temps.

Q: Every state has a public, state-run employment service agency.

Q: Local newspapers or the Web are the best source for blue-collar help and clerical employees.

Q: Effective recruiting results in a large number of applicants.

Q: The assumption shared by both trend analysis and ratio analysis is that productivity remains about the same from year to year.

Q: Trend analysis assumes the productivity increases over time.

Q: Interviews are not a method of collecting job analysis information,

Q: One step in gathering job analysis could be to briefly explain the job analysis process and reason, and the participants roles in the process.

Q: Observing work is a valid means of analyzing a job that has a lot of mental activity.

Q: What are the major duties of your position? is not a question used in a job analysis interview.

Q: A job analysis is a result of job specifications.

Q: When it refers to filling jobs like that of a maintenance clerk, personnel planning is called succession planning.

Q: A job description shows the reporting relationship of a job.

Q: Personnel planning rarely utilizes techniques like ratio analysis or trend analysis to estimate staffing needs.

Q: Some job descriptions have a "standards of performance" section.

Q: Recruitment efforts should be an integral part of a firm's strategic planning process.

Q: Competency-based job analysis means describing the job in terms of the observable competencies (knowledge, skills, and/or behaviors) that an employee must have to do the job.

Q: Competency-based job analysis is more job-focused than traditional job analysis.

Q: A manager uses job description information to write a job specification that lists the knowledge, abilities, and skills needed to perform the job.

Q: Employers may provide employees pocket dictating machines and iPads to record activities at random times of the workday.

Q: Observation as a data collection method in a job analysis is most appropriate for jobs entailing a lot of mental activity.

Q: Interviewing is simple and lets workers report activities that might not otherwise surface.

Q: Conducting the job analysis is the sole responsibility of the HR specialist.

Q: The information gathered during a job analysis is used primarily for listing what the job entails and what kind of people to hire for the job.

Q: Job analysis produces information used for writing job descriptions and job specifications.

Q: A big question in an organization is whether to fill an opening from the inside or with an outside candidate.

Q: ________ planning is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill, and how to fill them.. A) Workforce B) Selection C) Recruitment D) Replacement

Q: The recruitment and selection process has ________ steps. A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 7

Q: A relationships statement in a job description may contain all of the following except: A) mentors. B) reports to. C) works with. D) supervises.

Q: A job description has all of the following elements except: A) what the job holder does. B) how the job holder does it. C) under what conditions a job is done. D) All of the above are included in a job description.

Q: There are ________ steps in expediting a job analysis process. A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7

Q: Mandatory alternative dispute resolution agreements require ________. A) disgruntled employees to contact the local EEOC office prior to filing formal complaints B) applicants to agree to arbitrate certain legal disputes related to employment or dismissal C) applicants to take unpaid leaves of absence during employment disputes D) applicants agree not to dispute decisions of the company regarding their employment

Q: Which of the following could be perceived as discriminatory when asked on an employment application form? A) race B) religion C) age D) All of the above.

Q: Which of the following is not a type of information that could be illegal on application forms? A) education B) experience C) work stability D) applicant's age

Q: Once a firm has a pool of applicants, the first step in pre-screening is the ________. A) in-person interview B) on-site visit C) application form D) recommendation from recruiters

Q: One of the biggest challenges facing single parents in the job market is ________. A) getting access to the Internet to search job sites B) balancing work and family life C) getting a sufficient salary D) minimizing the commute to work

Q: When it comes to on-campus recruiting, which of the items listed below should be assessed by the campus recruiter? A) motivation B) commitment C) appearance D) All of the above.

Q: Besides determining whether a candidate is worth further consideration, college recruiters also seek to ________. A) fill the position B) develop a pool of applicants for future screening C) attract good candidates D) All of the above.

Q: College recruiters typically seek to ________. A) determine whether a candidate is worthy of further consideration B) fill the position C) cut costs for the firm by reducing the need to for on-site interviews D) develop a pool of applicants for future screening

Q: Which of the following is an advantage of college recruiting? A) access to a source of management trainees B) schedules for recruitment visits set far ahead of time C) access to candidates who are not looking for jobs D) All of the above.

Q: Pamlico River Productions is seeking a top-level executive to serve in its finance division. Qualified candidates can be difficult to find because there is more demand than supply. Pamlico River Productions should consider using a(n) ________ for recruitment. A) state-run employment agency B) executive recruiter C) temporary agency D) Any of the above.

Q: Which of the following is a disadvantage of using an executive recruiter? A) many contacts in field B) adept at contacting candidates who are not on the job market C) unfamiliar what the company truly wants in the ideal candidate D) ability to keep identity of firm confidential

Q: Executive recruiters are also called ________. A) headhunters B) staffers C) alternative staffing companies D) All of the above.

Q: ________ are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top-tier management talent for their clients. A) State-run employment agencies B) Temporary agencies C) Executive recruiters D) Job banks

Q: Jackie works as a nurse on temporary assignments for hospitals throughout the region on an as-needed basis. Jackie is ________. A) a contingent worker B) on job rotation C) using job enlargement D) None of the above.

Q: Contingent workers are used in ________ occupations. A) clerical B) engineering C) maintenance D) All of the above.

Q: List and explain five things that an employer cannot do with regard to discriminatory employment practices.

Q: What does BFOQ stand for? Explain the rationale behind it.

Q: What are the five sets of voluntary organizational activities that support the success of a diversity management program?

Q: What steps can an employee take to address the problem of harassment?

Q: Some say that even when employers use reasonable care by taking steps to minimize liability for sexual harassment, minimize, or eliminate the occurrence of sexual harassment, and take immediate action once it knows of harassing conduct, it still may not be enough. Why might this be the case?

Q: How can an employer defend itself against sexual harassment liability? Name and describe two methods.

Q: What are the three forms of sexual harassment? Name and describe each one.

Q: Explain the important aspects of Title VII.

Q: List three equal employment laws [for extra credit [HH5] give the year they were passed].

Q: What are the two types of sexual harassment?

Q: What legal obligations are required for employers by the Americans with Disabilities Act?

Q: Under the ADA, if a disabled individual cannot perform a job as currently structured, the employer must make a reasonable accommodation unless doing so would present an undue hardship. What might qualify as reasonable accommodation?

Q: What were the three crucial guidelines affecting equal employment legislation that Chief Justice Burger identified in his written opinion on Griggs v. Duke Power Company?

Q: Managing diversity means maximizing diversity's potential advantages while minimizing the potential barriers that can undermine the functioning of a diverse workforce.

Q: EEOC investigators are empowered to act as courts and can conclude discrimination based on their investigations.

Q: The Age Discrimination in Employment Act prohibits discriminating against a person 50 or over in any area of employment because of age.

Q: Employers primarily use a bona fide occupation qualification as a defense against charges of intentional discrimination based on gender.

Q: Under the Civil Rights Act of 1991, disparate impact claims require proof of discriminatory intent.

Q: Adverse impact refers to employment processes that result in more individuals from a protected group being rejected regardless of whether the difference is significant.

Q: In order for discrimination to exist, an employer's intent to discriminate must be established.

Q: To prove sexual harassment, it is necessary to show that the harassment had tangible consequences such as demotion or termination.

Q: The ADA requires employers to have job descriptions in order to document the essential functions of each position.

Q: Mental disabilities like depression account for the greatest number of claims brought under the ADA.

Q: Simply being disabled qualifies someone for a job under the ADA.

Q: The American with Disabilities Act of 1990 does not list specific disabilities.

Q: An employer can avoid liability for discrimination by proving that it would have taken the same action even without the discriminatory motive.

Q: Title VII forbids testing or screening of job applicants because testing could systematically discriminate against some protected classes.

Q: If an employer offers its employees disability coverage, then it must treat pregnancy and childbirth like any other disability and include it in the plan as a covered condition.

Q: The Equal Pay Act of 1963 made it unlawful to discriminate against employees or applicants for employment who are between 40 and 65 years of age.

Q: The most direct way to prove sexual harassment is showing a tangible employment action is dependent on sexual favors.

Q: Verbal conduct of a sexual nature cannot be called sexual harassment.

Q: The Pregnancy Discrimination Act is an amendment to Title VII.

Q: Executive Orders reduce the scope of Title VII.

Q: The EEOC does not have the power to sue on behalf of complainants.