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Q:
________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers the same test to the same people at two different points in time, and then compares the test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1.
A) Equivalent form estimate
B) Retest estimate
C) Internal consistency
D) Criterion validity
Q:
If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________.
A) valid
B) invalid
C) reliable
D) unreliable
Q:
If a person scores a 90 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 130 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________.
A) valid
B) reliable
C) unreliable
D) inconsistent
Q:
Which of the following is an example of a reliable test?
A) one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test
B) one that yields one score on a test and a different, but better score on the same test taken on a different occasion
C) one that yields different scores from two different people taking the test on different occasions
D) one that includes questions that are not repetitive in any way
Q:
What is the fourth thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?
A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structured reference checking form
D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references
Q:
Which assessment method can be conducted one-on-one or with a panel?
A) cognitive ability tests
B) job knowledge tests
C) structured interviews
D) All of the above.
Q:
Which assessment method that Dial Corp. used was shown to have a high adverse impact?
A) cognitive ability tests
B) job knowledge tests
C) structured interviews
D) strength tests
Q:
Which assessment method has a high content validity?
A) cognitive ability tests
B) personality tests
C) structured interviews
D) job knowledge tests
Q:
What is the third thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?
A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structured reference checking form
D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references
Q:
What is the second thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?
A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structured reference checking form
D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references
Q:
What is the first thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?
A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structured reference checking form
D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references
Q:
Which of the following is a commonly verified background area?
A) legal eligibility for employment
B) dates of prior employment
C) military service
D) All of the above.
Q:
What percentage of HR managers report checking applicants' background?
A) 82
B) 80
C) 75
D) 68
Q:
Which of the following is recommended regarding interviewing questions?
A) ask open-ended questions
B) ask questions that can be answered yes or no
C) put words into the applicant's mouth to try to trip them up
D) B and C only
Q:
Interviews should begin by ________.
A) establishing rapport
B) jumping right into the heart of the matter
C) highlighting what the interview will be doing
D) explaining the qualifications of the interviewer
Q:
Which of the following is a question that disabled persons would like interviewers to ask during the interview?
A) Is there any kind of setting or special equipment that would facilitate the interview process for you?
B) Provide an example of how you would use technology to carry out your job duties?
C) Other than technology, what other kind of support did you have in previous jobs?
D) All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following is not a common interviewing mistake?
A) snap judgments
B) negative emphasis
C) attractiveness of candidate
D) All of the above.
Q:
A(n) ________ is a procedure designed to solicit information from a person's oral responses to oral inquiries.
A) interview
B) presentation
C) prospectus
D) invigilation
Q:
The leaderless group discussion is part of the ________.
A) management assessment center
B) personality test battery
C) Wonderlic test
D) None of the above.
Q:
Which of the following is not an aspect of intercultural adaptability?
A) supervisory management
B) perception management
C) relationship management
D) self management
Q:
Which of the following is not a "big five" personality dimension?
A) inwardness
B) extroversion
C) agreeableness
D) conscientiousness
Q:
XYZ company uses a projective personality test on James. Subsequently, James is denied employment. James can ________.
A) be angry but nothing else
B) claim the results were false
C) claim the results violate the ADA
D) B and C only
Q:
Which of the following is not a type of personnel test?
A) ACO
B) cognitive abilities
C) motor and physical abilities
D) interest inventories
Q:
Careful testing and screening lead to ________.
A) improved performance on your own part
B) screening out undesirables
C) improved motivation among all including those who were not hired
D) A and B only
Q:
By some estimates, ________ percent of employees have stolen from their employers.
A) 75
B) 80
C) 26
D) 49
Q:
Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards is considered ________.
A) improper hiring
B) negligent hiring
C) appropriate depending upon the job
D) negligent intent
Q:
Which of the following is not another term for contingent workers?
A) part-time
B) just-in-time
C) collateral
D) temporary
Q:
Which of the following is not an advantage of using a private employment agency?
A) It may be faster than in-house recruiting.
B) It does not require internal recruitment specialists.
C) Screening may not be as thorough.
D) It may be better for attracting minority candidates.
Q:
Who is typically responsible for paying the fees charged by private employment agencies when they place qualified individuals in jobs?
A) the employer
B) the employee
C) the state employment commission
D) there are no fees
Q:
State-run employment agencies provide ________ to employers.
A) recruitment services
B) training programs
C) reviews of employer job requirements
D) All of the above.
Q:
Counselors in state-run employment agencies conduct all of the following activities except:
A) reviewing the employer's job requirements.
B) visiting employer work sites.
C) writing job descriptions.
D) Counselors perform all of the above activities.
Q:
Public state employment agencies are aided and coordinated by ________________.
A) private companies
B) region of the country
C) employers
D) the U.S. Department of Labor
Q:
Which of the following methods is not used to recruit outside candidates?
A) advertising
B) job postings
C) employment agencies
D) All of the above are used to recruit outside candidates.
Q:
Job posting refers to all of the following except:
A) publicizing the open job to employees.
B) listing the job's attributes.
C) listing the job's required qualifications.
D) listing the number of desired applicants.
Q:
Recruiting is necessary to ________.
A) forecast the supply of outside candidates
B) develop an applicant pool
C) determine whether to use inside or outside candidates
D) develop qualifications inventories
Q:
When managers need to determine which employees are available for promotion or transfer, they will use ________.
A) replacement charts
B) qualifications inventories
C) trend records
D) personnel files
Q:
________ contain data on employees' performance records, educational background, and promotion recommendations.
A) Computerized information systems
B) Replacement charts
C) Qualifications inventories
D) Trend records
Q:
A ________ shows graphically how two variables are related.
A) trend analysis
B) ratio analysis
C) scatter plot
D) correlation analysis
Q:
Suppose a salesperson traditionally generates $500,000 in sales and the company wishes to increase sales by $4 million dollars per year. Using ratio analysis, how many new salespeople are required?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Q:
The process of making forecasts based on the ratio between some causal factor like sales volume and the number of employees required is called ________.
A) ratio analysis
B) trend analysis
C) graphical analysis
D) computer analysis
Q:
Which term below means studying variations in a firm's employment levels over time?
A) ratio analysis
B) trend analysis
C) graphical analysis
D) All of the above.
Q:
When planning for employment requirements, what must be forecasted?
A) personnel needs
B) supply of inside candidates
C) Both A and B.
D) Neither A nor B.
Q:
When a company decides on how to fill top executive positions, the process is called ________.
A) employment planning
B) succession planning
C) selection
D) testing
Q:
________ is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill.
A) Recruitment
B) Selection
C) Workforce planning
D) None of the above.
Q:
Jane must decide what positions the firm should fill in the next six months. What activity is Jane working on?
A) recruitment
B) selection
C) personnel planning
D) interviewing
Q:
Traditional job analysis focuses on ________.
A) job duties and responsibilities
B) how work is accomplished
C) who accomplishes the work
D) where the work is accomplished
Q:
Competency analysis focuses on ________.
A) what is accomplished
B) what competencies or skills the worker must have to do the work
C) when work is accomplished
D) where the work is accomplished
Q:
Describing the job in terms of the observable competencies or skills necessary for good job performance is called a ________.
A) competency-based job analysis
B) Department of Labor Procedure
C) functional job analysis
D) None of the above.
Q:
When a manager takes a talent management approach, he or she:
A) understands the talent management tasks.
B) makes sure talent management decisions are goal-directed.
C) actively segments and manages employees.
D) All of the above.
Q:
When filling jobs with untrained people, the job specifications may include ________.
A) quality of training
B) length of previous service
C) physical traits
D) All of the above.
Q:
The job specification takes the job description and answers the question:
A) What human traits and experience are required to do this job well?
B) When will the supervisor be completely satisfied with a worker's work?
C) What are the four main activities making up this job?
D) What are the performance standards for the job?
Q:
What type of information is contained in the job identification section of a job description?
A) job title
B) job summary
C) major functions or activities
D) All of the above.
Q:
One uses information from the ________ to write a job specification.
A) job summary
B) job identification
C) job description
D) standards for performance
Q:
Most job descriptions contain sections that cover ________.
A) job summary
B) standards of performance
C) working conditions
D) All of the above.
Q:
What form of data collection involves recording work activities in a log?
A) interviews
B) diaries
C) direct observation
D) None of the above.
Q:
Jane records every activity she participates in at work along with time in a log. This approach to data collection for job analysis is based on ________.
A) diaries
B) interviews
C) direct observation
D) questionnaires
Q:
For which of the following jobs is direct observation not recommended to collect data used in a job analysis?
A) assembly-line worker
B) accounting clerk
C) design engineer
D) receptionist
Q:
Which of the following is not an advantage of using interviews to collect job analysis data?
A) It is simple to use.
B) Some information may be exaggerated or minimized.
C) It is quick to collect information.
D) It can identify uncommon, but important activities.
Q:
Who is interviewed by managers collecting job analysis data?
A) individual employees
B) groups of employees with the same job
C) supervisors who know the job
D) All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following methods is used to gather job analysis data?
A) interviews
B) questionnaires
C) observation
D) All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following may be included in a job specification?
A) traits
B) skills
C) required background
D) All of the above.
Q:
The framework for talent management includes ________.
A) deciding what positions to fill
B) building a pool of job candidates
C) using selection tools such as tests, interviews, and the like
D) All of the above.
Q:
A ________ summarizes the personal qualities, traits, skills, and work behaviors required for getting the job done.
A) job specification
B) job analysis
C) job report
D) job description
Q:
Which term refers to a written statement that describes the activities and responsibilities of the job?
A) job specification
B) job report
C) job description
D) job context
Q:
Information regarding job demands such as finger dexterity or conscientiousness is included in the information about ________ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
A) work activities
B) human behaviors
C) machines, tools, equipment, and work aids
D) performance standards
Q:
Which of the following types of information can be collected via a job analysis?
A) work activities
B) human behaviors
C) performance standards
D) All of the above.
Q:
The information resulting from job analysis is used for writing ________.
A) job descriptions
B) work activities
C) work aids
D) performance standards
Q:
________ is the procedure through which one determines the duties associated with positions and the characteristics of people to hire for those positions.
A) Job description
B) Job specification
C) Job analysis
D) Job context
Q:
What are the advantages and disadvantages of using interviews to collect job analysis data?
Q:
Explain how job analysis provides information useful in recruitment and selection, compensation, and performance appraisal.
Q:
What four types of information can be learned about a job candidate from the application form?
Q:
What are the advantages and disadvantages of using an employee referral campaign for recruitment purposes?
Q:
Give examples of items that can be found in the working conditions and physical environment section of a job description.
Q:
Why do employers turn to private employment agencies for assistance in recruiting? Provide at least four reasons for the use of such employment agencies.
Q:
Why are current employees often the best source of candidates for vacant positions?
Q:
Explain why generating large applicant pools is not always desirable for a firm. What implications exist for recruitment methods?
Q:
The O*NET system provides valuable job specification information for untrained personnel only.
Q:
The EEOC is generally opposed to the use of mandatory alternative dispute resolution agreements, which are required by many employers.
Q:
A question on an employment application form that requests the dates of attendance and graduation from various schools may be illegal as it could reflect an applicant's age.
Q:
Employers have to formulate plans for attracting minorities and women, including reevaluating personnel policies and developing flexible work options.