Human Resource

Q: Jane follows John in an interview session. John is a particularly inept individual who is nervous and comes across poorly. Jane is more likely to be perceived in a positive light.

Q: In an interview, it is recommend that you begin the interview by jumping right in to the crux of the matter.

Q: Interview panels that have racially balanced composition rated white applicants higher across all panel members.

Q: Behavioral interview questions focus on future behavior.

Q: In an interview, according to one researcher, you have lots of time to make an impression on the interviewer.

Q: Structured interviews are more reliable than unstructured ones.

Q: A structured interview is the only kind that is allowed in organizations.

Q: Projective personality tests allow for rejected candidates to claim that the results violate the Americans with Disabilities Act.

Q: The in-basket exercise is a personality test exercise.

Q: Computerized and online testing can only be done with esoteric, unconventional tests.

Q: Achievement tests measure what a person has learned.

Q: Although personality tests are used quite frequently, they are not reliable.

Q: Industrial psychologists often study the "big seven" personality dimensions.

Q: Interest inventories compare one's interests with those of people in various occupations.

Q: Reliability is not a concern with respect to a test's validity.

Q: First impressions created from candidate application forms and personal appearance can affect interviewer ratings of candidates.

Q: Rejected applicants who receive bad references could sue the source of a reference for defamation of character.

Q: Interest inventories are useful for career planning because they compare the interests of the test taker to the interests of those people in various occupations.

Q: A minority of HR managers check applicants' backgrounds.

Q: Lower-level workers such as clerks are cheap to hire.

Q: Avoiding negligent hiring claims requires taking every single precaution possible.

Q: Selection tests must be validated in the organization that uses them regardless of the validity shown in other similar organizations.

Q: Criterion validity emphasizes judgment.

Q: There are six steps in the validation process beginning with analyzing the job and concluding with revalidation.

Q: Validity confirms that one is measuring something consistently.

Q: Reliability confirms that one is measuring what one intends to measure.

Q: Test validity answers the question, "Does this test measure what it's supposed to measure?"

Q: Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at two points in time to determine test equivalence.

Q: An internal comparison estimate measures internal consistency.

Q: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.

Q: Effective selection depends to a large degree on the concept of validity but not reliability.

Q: Most interviews are one-on-one.

Q: The interview is the most widely used personnel selection procedure.

Q: Consider the following question: "What factors should be considered when developing a customer database?" What type of question is this? A) background B) past behavior C) situational D) job knowledge

Q: Consider the following question: "What work experience do you have in marketing and sales?" What type of question is this? A) background B) behavioral C) situational D) job knowledge

Q: Consider the following question: "Can you provide an example of a specific instance where you provided leadership in a difficult situation?" What type of question is this? A) background B) behavioral C) situational D) structured

Q: Consider the following question: "Suppose you saw a co-worker who was not following standard work procedures. The co-worker claimed that the new procedure was better. What would you do?" What type of question is this? A) background B) past behavior C) situational D) job knowledge

Q: Based on interviewer assessments of attractiveness and gender, which of the following would most likely receive the highest rating for an executive level position? A) an attractive woman B) an attractive man C) an unattractive woman D) There are no such biases based on attractiveness and gender.

Q: The team holding the interviews for new auditors is behind in its recruiting quota. The team is most likely to rate the applicants ________ in this situation. A) positively B) neutrally C) unacceptable D) There is not enough information to determine.

Q: Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Human Resource Management. His interview is conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score. This is an example of a ________ interview. A) serial B) panel C) sequential D) mass

Q: In a mass interview, a team of individuals interviews the candidate in a ________ fashion. A) serial B) sequential C) panel D) systematic

Q: What type of question is the following: "Imagine that you have just been assigned the task of winning the business of our competition's biggest client. How would you proceed?" A) situational B) behavioral C) puzzle D) directive

Q: Which of the following statements is an example of a situational question? A) "Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation." B) "How have you handled ethical dilemmas in the past?" C) "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?" D) "In this position, you are responsible for hiring and firing subordinates. Have you ever fired anyone before? Tell me how you handled the situation."

Q: What type of question is the following: "Can you tell me about a time when you worked successfully in a team environment?" A) situational B) behavioral C) stress D) puzzle

Q: When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries, it is called a(n) ________ interview. A) selection B) appraisal C) exit D) structured

Q: A(n) ________ is a procedure designed to obtain information from a person through oral responses to oral inquiries. A) writing test B) work sample simulation C) interview D) reference check

Q: The ________ is considered by many to be the most important screening tool. A) telephone reference B) reference letter C) selection interview D) management assessment center

Q: Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________. A) numerology B) astrology C) handwriting analysis D) polygraph output assessment

Q: Employers can and should use all the tools listed below to attempt to detect dishonest job applicants except: A) polygraph tests. B) credit checks. C) background checks. D) honesty tests.

Q: What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and acceptance of rationalizations for theft? A) personality tests B) interest inventories C) honesty tests D) graphology

Q: Which of the following is not usually verified by an employer prior to hiring a job candidate? A) legal eligibility for employment B) age C) credit ratings D) motor vehicle record

Q: Employers may conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate's ________. A) age B) marital status C) legal eligibility D) All of the above.

Q: Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following except: A) the in basket. B) leaderless group discussion. C) tests of motor abilities. D) interviews.

Q: A ________ is a two or three-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic management tasks under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate's potential. A) work sampling event B) video-based situational testing C) management assessment center D) retreat

Q: ________ tests measure a person's level of introversion, stability, and motivation. A) Motor ability B) Personality C) Achievement D) Cognitive

Q: ________ tests include tests like finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time. A) Motor ability B) Personality C) Achievement D) Interest

Q: Jack is being tested on static strength, dynamic strength, body coordination, and stamina during the selection period at UPS. UPS is using ________ tests. A) personality B) motor and physical abilities C) achievement D) comprehensive

Q: Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability are called ________ tests. A) aptitude B) intelligence C) achievement D) comprehensive

Q: ________ tests include tests of general reasoning ability and tests of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. A) Personality B) Achievement C) Cognitive D) Physical ability

Q: Which of the following rights do test takers have under the American Psychological Association's standard for educational and psychological tests? A) the right to confidentiality of test results B) the right to informed consent C) the right to expect that only qualified people will have access to the scores D) All of the above.

Q: Which of the following tasks is not part of demonstrating content validity? A) demonstrating that the tasks a person performs on the test represent the tasks performed on the job B) demonstrating that the tasks on the test are a random sample of tasks performed on the job C) demonstrating the conditions under which the person takes the test resemble the work situation D) demonstrating that the scores on the test are a good predictor of criterion like job performance

Q: The final step in the validation process is to ________. A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job B) analyze the job C) relate test scores and job criteria D) cross-validate

Q: The second step in the validation process is to ________. A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job B) analyze the job C) relate test scores and job criteria D) cross-validate

Q: The first step in the validation process is to ________. A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job B) analyze the job C) administer tests D) cross-validate

Q: Which of the following is not a reason that a test might be unreliable? A) questions may not represent material B) testing conditions could vary C) the test may not predict actual performance D) All of the above are reasons for unreliable tests.

Q: Which of the following describes using an internal comparison estimate to assess reliability? A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 B) administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together C) administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people D) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well

Q: Which of the following describes using an equivalent-form estimate to assess reliability? A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 B) administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together C) administer two tests deemed the same by experts and then compare participants' test scores for test one and test two D) different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people

Q: When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which form of reliability is likely being measured? A) retest estimate B) internal consistency C) equivalent form D) criterion validity

Q: ________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyzes the degree to which responses to the items vary together. A) Equivalent form estimate B) Retest estimate C) Internal consistency D) Internal comparison estimate

Q: ________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers two tests deemed to be equivalent by experts and then compares the test scores from the two tests. A) Equivalent form estimate B) Retest estimate C) Internal comparison estimate D) Criterion validity

Q: Which of the following describes using a retest estimate to assess reliability? A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 B) administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together C) administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people D) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well

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