Q&A Hero

Q: Holidays, vacations, jury duty, funeral leave, military duty, personal days, sick leave, sabbatical leave, and maternity leave are classified as ________ benefits. A) supplemental pay B) insurance C) services D) premium

Q: Which of the following is false regarding the application of the Family and Medical Leave Act? A) Up to 12 weeks must be granted in a twelve-month period. B) To be eligible, an employee must have worked for the employer for at least twelve months. C) No advance notice is necessary. D) To be eligible, an employee must have worked for a minimum of 1250 hours in the past twelve months.

Q: How many weeks may an employee take as unpaid leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act? A) two B) four C) six D) twelve

Q: The Family and Medical Leave Act ________. A) provides guidelines regarding what rates of return employers should use in computing their pension plan values B) ensures that an employer must grant an employee up to 12 weeks of leave in a twelve-month period for the birth or care of a newborn child, placement of a child for adoption, to care for a spouse, child, or parent with a serious health condition, or to care for the employee's own serious health condition C) prohibits an employer's health plan from using incentives to encourage employees to leave the hospital after childbirth after less than the legislatively-determined minimum stay D) sets minimum requirements for protecting individuals' health-care data accessibility and confidentiality

Q: Which regulation ensures that an employer must grant an employee up to 12 weeks of leave in a twelve-month period for the birth or care of a newborn child, placement of a child for adoption, to care for a spouse, child, or parent with a serious health condition, or to care for the employee's own serious health condition? A) Family and Medical Leave Act B) Economic Growth and Tax Relief Conciliation Act C) Job Creation and Worker Assistance Act D) Newborn Mother's Protection Act E) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Q: Which regulation covers pension plans and requires employers to have written plan documents that establish terms such as eligibility and participation? A) Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) B) Economic Growth and Tax Relief Conciliation Act C) Newborn Mother's Protection Act D) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Q: Which of the following benefits is required by federal or state law? A) disability insurance B) workers' compensation C) paid time off for vacations and holidays D) pensions

Q: Approximately what percentage of employers offer some health insurance coverage? A) 25% B) 40% C) 60% D) 99%

Q: Nonfinancial payments like health and life insurance, pensions, time off with pay, and child care facilities are examples of ________. A) variable pay B) competency-based incentives C) benefits D) salary

Q: The indirect financial and nonfinancial payments employees receive for continuing employment with the company are called ________. A) reimbursement B) employee compensation C) salary D) benefits

Q: Gainsharing is an incentive plan that ________. A) uses a trust to hold stock in individual employee accounts and distributes it to employees upon retirement B) engages many or all employees in a common effort to achieve a company's productivity objectives with any resulting cost-savings gains shared among employees and the company C) contributes company shares of its own stock or cash to be used to purchase company stock to a trust established to purchase shares of the firm's stock for employees D) involves the firm simply distributing a percentage of profits as profit shares to employees at regular intervals

Q: A(n) ________ plan is an incentive plan that engages many or all employees in a common effort to achieve a company's productivity objectives with any resulting cost-savings gains shared among employees and the company. A) Scanlon B) Lincoln incentive C) Gainsharing D) ESOP

Q: Which incentive plan is based on a philosophy that managers and employees must cooperate together? A) cash plan B) Scanlon plan C) deferred profit-sharing plan D) employee stock ownership plan

Q: The Scanlon plan includes all of the following features except: A) improving productivity. B) an emphasis on individual achievement. C) sharing. D) financial gains.

Q: Which plan uses a trust to hold stock in individual employee accounts and distributes it to employees upon retirement? A) cash plan B) Jefferson incentive system C) deferred profit-sharing plan D) employee stock ownership plan

Q: Companywide plans in which a corporation contributes shares of its own stock or cash to be used to purchase company stock to a trust established to purchase shares of the firm's stock for employees are called ________. A) cash plans B) Jefferson incentive systems C) deferred profit-sharing plans D) employee stock ownership plans

Q: Which profit-sharing plan provides tax advantages for the employer at fair market value? A) cash plan B) Jefferson incentive system C) deferred profit-sharing plan D) ESOP

Q: What type of profit-sharing plan involves the awarded shares of stock as part of the incentive plan? A) cash plan B) Lincoln incentive system C) Jefferson incentive system D) ESOP

Q: All of the following are advantages of team incentives except that: A) team planning is reinforced. B) worker's pay may not be proportional to his or her efforts. C) jealousy is reduced. D) collaboration is encouraged.

Q: Which of the following is true of recognition programs? A) They have a positive impact on performance. B) They are expensive to administer. C) They reduce extrinsic motivation. D) Both A and B.

Q: How does merit pay differ from a bonus? A) Merit pay becomes part of an employee's base pay, but a bonus does not. B) A bonus becomes part of an employee's base pay, but merit pay does not. C) Merit pay is linked to individual performance, while a bonus is not. D) A bonus is linked to individual performance, while merit pay is linked to company performance

Q: ________ is any salary increase the firm awards to an individual employee based on his or her individual performance. A) Merit pay B) Variable pay C) Competency-based pay D) Piecework

Q: What type of pay plan is being used when workers are paid a sum for each unit they produce? A) base pay B) competency-based pay C) job-based pay D) piecework

Q: According to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, if a company must restate financial statements due to material noncompliance with a financial reporting requirement, the act requires that the CEO ________. A) repay any bonuses received during the 12 months prior to the issuance of the financial statements in question B) make a public apology to stock holders C) resign from the position of CEO D) All of the above.

Q: ________ means collapsing salary grades and ranges into just a few wide levels or bands, each of which contains a relatively wide range of jobs and salary levels. A) Comparable worth B) Strategic compensation C) Broadbanding D) Job grading

Q: A company using competency-based pay compensates for all of the following except an employee's ________. A) range of skills B) job title C) depth of knowledge D) type of skills

Q: Supplemental executive retirement plans and supplemental life insurance are classified as ________ in executive compensation packages. A) base pay B) short-term incentives C) long-term incentives D) executive benefits

Q: Which of the following is typically included in compensation packages for a company's top executives? A) short-term and long-term incentives B) perks C) executive benefits D) All of the above.

Q: What is the purpose of the wage curve? A) to show the relationship between the value of the job as determined by one of the job evaluation methods and the current average pay rates for your grades B) to equate jobs of approximately equal difficulty or importance as established by job evaluation C) to assign pay rates to pay grades D) to choose benchmark jobs within each pay grade

Q: The ________ shows the pay rates currently paid for jobs in each pay grade, relative to the points or rankings assigned to each job or grade by the job evaluation. A) pay group B) pay grade C) class D) wage curve

Q: A ________ is comprised of jobs of approximately equal difficulty or importance as established by job evaluation. A) pay group B) benchmark C) pay grade D) class

Q: Which job evaluation method is a quantitative technique involving the identification of several compensable factors and the degree to which each of these factors is present in the job? A) ranking method B) point method C) factor comparison D) job classification method

Q: The point method of job evaluation entails ________. A) identifying several compensable factors, each having several degrees, and the degree to which each of these factors is present in the job B) ranking each job relative to all other jobs based on some overall factor C) using raters to categorize jobs into groups D) deciding which jobs have more of the chosen compensable factors

Q: When using the job classification method of job evaluation, raters categorize jobs into groups of jobs that are similar in difficulty but not in context called ________. A) classes B) grades C) sections D) cohorts

Q: When using the job classification method of job evaluation, raters categorize jobs into groups of similar jobs called ________. A) classes B) grades C) sections D) cohorts

Q: Factors that establish how the jobs compare to one another and set the pay for each job are called ________ factors. A) compensable B) job evaluation C) ranking D) analysis

Q: Which of the following is not one of the compensable factors emphasized in the Equal Pay Act? A) skills B) effort C) accountability D) responsibility

Q: ________ is a formal and systematic comparison of jobs to determine the worth of one job relative to another. A) Job analysis B) Job evaluation C) Benchmark analysis D) Job ranking

Q: Internal equity refers to ________. A) how a job's pay rate in one company compares the job's pay rate in other companies B) how fair the job's pay rate is, when compared to other jobs within the same company C) the fairness of an individual's pay as compared with what his or her coworkers are earning for the same or very similar jobs within the company, based on each individual's performance D) the perceived fairness of the processes and procedures used to make decisions regarding the allocation of pay

Q: External equity refers to ________. A) how a job's pay rate in one company compares the job's pay rate in other companies B) how fair the job's pay rate is, when compared to other jobs within the same company C) the fairness of an individual's pay as compared with what his or her coworkers are earning for the same or very similar jobs within the company, based on each individual's performance D) the perceived fairness of the processes and procedures used to make decisions regarding the allocation of pay

Q: Jack is a sales manager and he recently learned that human resource managers with similar responsibilities and spans of control earn more than he does. Jack is concerned with the ________ form of equity. A) external B) internal C) distributive D) individual

Q: Which form of equity refers to how fair a job's pay rate is, when compared to other jobs within the same company? A) external B) internal C) distributive D) individual

Q: Jason is an information systems technician in a town in North Carolina with a population of 100,000. He earns $35,000/year. He recently found out that a nearby town with a similar population pays people in the same position $40,000/year. Jason is concerned with the ________ form of equity. A) distributive B) procedural C) internal D) external

Q: Which form of equity refers to how a job's pay rate in one company compares to the job's pay rate in other companies? A) external B) internal C) distributive D) procedural

Q: Unions negotiate all of the following pay-related issues except: A) wage rates B) income security C) unpaid leave to care for an immediate family member D) time off with pay

Q: Historically, the main issue in collective bargaining is ________. A) time off with pay B) wage rates C) income security D) health care benefits

Q: The ________ allows a firm to borrow against employee stock held in trust. A) Fair Labor Standards Act B) Civil Rights Act C) Employer Retirement Income Security Act D) National Labor Relations Act

Q: Which of the following is true for employers who use independent contractors? A) Fair Labor Standards Act regulations do not apply B) Social Security taxes are higher than for regular employees C) State income taxes are charged at a higher rate D) Social Security taxes are charged at a higher rate

Q: According to the Family and Medical Leave Act, eligible employees can take unpaid, job-protected leave for the ________. A) care of a child B) birth of a child C) care of a parent D) All of the above.

Q: According to the Family and Medical Leave Act, eligible employees can take up to ________ weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave for the birth of a child or for the care of a child, spouse, or parent. A) two B) four C) six D) twelve

Q: The ________ prohibits discriminating against employees who are 40 years of age and older in all aspects of employment, including compensation. A) Fair Labor Standards Act B) Civil Rights Act C) Equal Pay Act D) Age Discrimination in Employment Act

Q: Which of the following professions is considered "nonexempt" from provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act? A) attorney B) physician C) management trainee D) general manager

Q: Under which condition is it acceptable for employees of the opposite sex to receive different pay for doing roughly equivalent work? A) when the difference exists despite equal skills B) when the difference exists despite similar responsibility C) when the difference exists because of a merit system D) it is never acceptable

Q: The ________ states that employees of one sex may not be paid wages at a rate lower than that paid to employees of the opposite sex for doing roughly equivalent work. A) American Disabilities Act B) Civil Rights Act C) Employer Retirement Income Security Act D) Equal Pay Act

Q: All of the following occupations are exempt from the overtime provisions stated in the Fair Labor Standards Act except: A) physicians. B) dentists. C) management trainees. D) teachers.

Q: Which of the following occupations must adhere to overtime and minimum pay provisions stated in the Fair Labor Standards Act? A) paralegals B) pharmacists C) attorneys D) department heads

Q: Jack worked 6 hours of overtime this week but has decided to take time off instead of overtime pay. How many hours will Jack get off? A) 3 hours B) 6 hours C) 9 hours D) 12 hours

Q: Jill works as a cashier at a grocery store. She earns $8 an hour (or $320 for a 40-hour week). Last week, she worked 44 hours. Given standard requirements from the FLSA, what did she earn last week? A) $320 B) $336 C) $344 D) $368

Q: According to the Fair Labor Standards Act, if a worker covered by the act works more than 40 hours, he or she will receive overtime pay at a rate of ________ of normal pay for any hours worked over 40 in a workweek. A) 50% B) 100% C) 125% D) 150%

Q: Which law makes it illegal to discriminate against any individual with respect to compensation because of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin? A) Fair Labor Standards Act B) Civil Rights Act C) Employer Retirement Income Security Act D) Davis-Bacon Act

Q: The Fair Labor Standards Act covers workers employed in ________. A) manufacturing B) retailing C) service industries D) All of the above.

Q: Which of the following is addressed by the Fair Labor Standards Act? A) minimum wage B) maximum hours C) child labor D) All of the above.

Q: Which compensation-related law contains minimum wage, maximum hours, overtime pay, equal pay, and child labor provisions? A) Davis-Bacon Act B) Fair Wages Act C) Civil Rights Act D) Fair Labor Standards Act

Q: Which of the following factors affects the design of any pay plan? A) legal B) union C) equity D) All of the above.

Q: Which of the following is categorized as an indirect payment portion of employee compensation? A) wages B) salaries C) employer-paid insurance D) bonuses

Q: Direct financial payments include all of the following except: A) wages. B) insurance. C) salaries. D) incentives.

Q: ________ refers to all forms of pay or rewards going to employees and arising from their employment. A) Reimbursement B) Employee compensation C) Salary D) Benefits

Q: Briefly explain how an at-risk variable pay plan works.

Q: Why are family-friendly benefits increasingly valuable to employees? What are some examples of family-friendly benefits?

Q: Explain the three classifications that apply to basic pension plans.

Q: Explain the three types of benefits provided by Social Security.

Q: Why do employers provide severance pay to employees who are being terminated? Offer at least three reasons. What standards guide the amount of severance pay offered?

Q: Explain the purpose of sick leave and why sick leave pay causes difficulties for many employers.

Q: Explain the advantages of employee stock ownership plans.

Q: What are the steps for pricing jobs with a wage curve?

Q: List the steps used in the job ranking method of job evaluation.

Q: List the steps used to establish pay rates while ensuring external, internal, and procedural equity.

Q: Broadbanding refers to the requirement to pay men and women equal wages for jobs of comparable value to the employer.

Q: There is no limit to the amount an employee can contribute pre-tax into a 401(k) plan each year.

Q: The Comprehensive Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act ensures that employers are not responsible for making health benefits available to terminated or retired employees and their families.