Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the bases for dismissal is defined as an employee's inability to do the work assigned because the nature of the job has changed? A) unsatisfactory performance B) misconduct C) lack of qualifications for job D) changed requirements of job

Q: Which of the bases for dismissal is defined as an employee's inability to do the assigned work despite his or her diligence? A) unsatisfactory performance B) misconduct C) lack of qualifications for job D) changed requirements of job Answer: C 37 Lack of qualifications, one of the bases for dismissal, is defined as ________. A) the deliberate and willful violation of the employer's rules and may include stealing and insubordination B) an employee's inability to do the assigned work despite his or her diligence C) the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job D) stealing, chronic tardiness, and flat-out disobedience Answer: B

Q: Misconduct, one of the bases for dismissal, is defined as ________. A) the deliberate and willful violation of the employer's rules and may include stealing and insubordination B) an employee's inability to do the assigned work despite his or her diligence C) the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job D) an employee's inability to do the work assigned because the nature of the job has changed

Q: Which of the bases for dismissal is defined as the deliberate and willful violation of the employer's rules and may include stealing and insubordination? A) unsatisfactory performance B) whistle blowing C) misconduct D) changed requirements of job

Q: Unsatisfactory performance, one of the bases for dismissal, is defined as ________. A) the deliberate and willful violation of the employer's rules and may include stealing and insubordination B) an employee's inability to do the assigned work despite his or her diligence C) the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job D) an employee's inability to do the work assigned because the nature of the job has changed

Q: Which of the bases for dismissal is defined as the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job? A) unsatisfactory performance B) misconduct C) lack of qualifications for job D) changed requirements of job

Q: All of the following are reasonable bases for dismissal except: A) unsatisfactory performance. B) whistle blowing. C) misconduct. D) lack of qualifications for job.

Q: The exception to the termination at will doctrine that would protect an employee from dismissal because he or she refused to break the law is called the ________ exception. A) covenant of good faith B) implied contract C) public policy D) whistle blower

Q: Under the public policy exception to the termination at will doctrine, courts have held that ________. A) discharge is wrongful when it is against an explicit, well-established law B) even in the absence of a written document, an implied contract existed based on representations in the employee handbook C) employers should not fire employees without good cause D) persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job is reason for dismissal

Q: Which of the following exceptions is not responsible for eroding the strength of the "terminate at will" doctrine? A) public policy exception B) public relations exception C) statutory exception D) All of the above have eroded the doctrine's strength.

Q: The "terminate at will" rule guiding the employment relationship has traditionally meant that ________. A) an employee can resign for any reason B) an employer can fire an employee for any reason C) contracts do not hold any real meaning in a court battle D) Both A and B.

Q: The most drastic step a manager can take in response to an employee offense is ________. A) written warning B) warning documented in employee file C) time off without pay D) dismissal

Q: Which of the following is one of the types of privacy violations upheld by courts? A) intrusion B) publication of private matters C) appropriation of an employee's name for commercial purposes D) videotaping in the workplace

Q: Which of the following is not a fair discipline guideline? A) A set of clear rules and regulations. B) A system of progressive penalties . C) An appeals process should be part of the disciplinary process. D) All of the above are part of a fair discipline process.

Q: All of the following is a step in discipline without punishment except: A) issue a written reminder. B) give a paid, one-day "decision-making leave." C) if no further incidents purge the one-day suspension from the file. D) None of the above.

Q: A fair discipline process is built on which of the following? A) rules and regulations B) a system of progressive penalties C) an appeals process D) All of the above.

Q: In which organizational document are an organization's rules and regulations usually stated? A) employee handbook B) code of ethics C) sexual harassment training guide D) human resource policy manual

Q: The purpose of ________ is to inform employees ahead of time what is and is not acceptable behavior A) ethics B) norms C) discipline D) morality

Q: Under which of the following circumstances would an interview used for selection purposes be perceived as unfair? A) Two-way communication is used. B) Applicant is given an opportunity to display skills. C) Feedback is provided. D) A personality test is administered.

Q: Ethical behavior starts with ________. A) moral awareness B) moral ineptitude C) morality D) systemic cognitive biases

Q: Offering rewards for ethical behavior: _______________________. A) can backfire B) may actually undermine the intrinsic value of ethical behavior C) can lead to promoting someone who got a big sale through devious means D) All of the above.

Q: Capital One welcomes new employees on a designated day with balloons, parties, and pep rallies. This is an example of ________. A) providing physical support B) using stories C) using symbols D) organizing ceremonies

Q: The CEO of Southwest Airlines can sometimes be seen helping out at a gate, handling luggage, and assisting cabin attendants while in flight. This is an example of ________ to create and sustain the company's culture. A) providing physical support B) organizing ceremonies C) clarifying expectations D) using signs and symbols

Q: With respect to rights and fairness, which one of the following is not true? A An increasingly litigious workforce is a reason to be fair. B) Many societies correctly rely solely on managers sense of fairness to ensure that they do what is right by their employees C) Laws like Title VII give employees various rights D) Employees also have certain rights under common law.

Q: Federal Express has a guaranteed fair treatment multistep program consisting of _______________ . A) management review B) officer complaint C) organizing ceremonies D) A and B only.

Q: Bullying can take many forms except ________. A) spreading rumors B) using the Internet C) leaving people out on purpose D) All of the above are forms of bullying.

Q: Bullying involves ________. A) Imbalance of Power B) Repetition C) Intent to Cause Harm D) All of the above.

Q: The Enron debacle, Its not the rules but what employees feel they should do that determines ethical behavior, is a description of __________________________. A) Organizational culture B) Organizational climate C) Organizational ethics D) National culture

Q: Which of the following is not an influencing factor on ethical behavior? A) moral disengagement B) employees talking openly about ethics C) managers D) All of the above.

Q: Procedural justice refers to the ________. A) fairness of the process used to arrive at a decision B) manner in which managers conduct their interpersonal dealings with employees C) fairness of a decision's result D) the degree to which managers treat employees with dignity as opposed to abuse or disrespect

Q: Which component of justice in refers to the fairness of a process? A) distributive justice B) procedural justice C) interactional justice D) interpersonal justice

Q: Distributive justice refers to the ________. A) fairness of the process used to arrive at a decision B) manner in which managers conduct their interpersonal dealings with employees C) fairness of a decision's result D) the degree to which managers treat employees with dignity as opposed to abuse or disrespect

Q: ________ justice refers to something that is good or bad, right or wrong, better or worse. A) Distributive B) Procedural C) Interactional D) Normative

Q: ________ justice refers to fair outcomes. A) Distributive B) Procedural C) Interactional D) Normative

Q: Morality refers to the ________. A) basic beliefs about what is right or wrong B) principles of conduct governing an individual or group C) standards used by the organization to decide upon proper conduct D) standards of behavior accepted by society

Q: Ethics refers to the ________. A) basic beliefs about what is right or wrong B) characteristic values, traditions, and behaviors a company's employees share C) principles of conduct governing an individual or group D) standards used by the organization to decide upon proper conduct

Q: The principles of conduct governing an individual or a group are referred to as ________. A) judgments B) norms C) ethics D) laws

Q: About 99% of employers in the United States offer some form of health insurance coverage.

Q: The primary advantage of broadbanding is that it provides greater flexibility into employee assignments.

Q: Competencies are demonstrable characteristics of a person including knowledge, skills, and behaviors that enable performance.

Q: Job classification is the simplest of the job evaluation methods.

Q: Scanlon plans involve putting some portion of an employee's weekly pay at risk for the opportunity to earn incentives if the employee meets or exceeds his or her goals.

Q: The Scanlon plan is a type of gainsharing plan.

Q: A key advantage of employee stock ownership plans is that the company gets a tax advantage equal to the fair market value of the shares that are transferred to the trustee and can also claim an income tax deduction for dividends paid on ESOP-owned stock.

Q: All merit increases are cumulative in that they become a part of an employee's base salary.

Q: The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 makes board members personally liable for violating their fiduciary responsibilities to their shareholders.

Q: The Equal Pay Act focuses on three compensable factorsknow-how, problem solving, and accountability.

Q: External equity refers to how fair the job's pay rate is, when compared to other jobs within the same company.

Q: Some employers may misclassify employees as independent contractors to reduce the taxes they must pay.

Q: The provision of the Family and Medical Leave Act that entitles employees to take up to 12 weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave for the birth of a child only applies to women.

Q: While laws exist to protect against discrimination in compensation based on gender and age, no law protects against such discrimination against persons with disabilities.

Q: The Equal Pay Act states that employees of one sex may not be paid wages at a rate lower than that paid to employees of the opposite sex for doing roughly equivalent work.

Q: Because the minimum wage is set by the Fair Labor Standards Act, all states adhere to that wage.

Q: When employees work more than 40 hours per week, employers must pay overtime at a rate of at least one and a half times the normal pay for any hours worked over 40 in a workweek.

Q: Indirect payments that contribute to an employee's compensation include variable pay, such as commissions and bonuses.

Q: Historically, the main issue in collective bargaining is wage rates.

Q: Financial benefits like employer-paid insurance and vacations are not a part of employee compensation.

Q: Plans that put some portion of the employee's weekly pay at risk to encourage goal attainment are called ________ pay plans. A) at-risk variable B) Rucker C) Improshare D) Scanlon

Q: An employee stock ownership plan is an incentive plan that ________. A) engages many or all employees in a common effort to achieve a company's productivity objectives with any resulting cost-savings gains shared among employees and the company B) focuses on the sharing of benefits between employer and employees C) contributes company shares of its own stock or cash to be used to purchase company stock to a trust established to purchase shares of the firm's stock for employees D) involves the firm distributing total annual profits each year among employees based on their merit rating

Q: ESOP is an incentive plan that ________. A) uses a trust to hold stock in individual employee accounts and distributes it to employees upon retirement B) engages many or all employees in a common effort to achieve a company's productivity objectives with any resulting cost-savings gains shared among employees and the company C) contributes company shares of its own stock or cash to be used to purchase company stock to a trust established to purchase shares of the firm's stock for employees D) provides tax advantages for employees by deferring income taxes, often until the employee retires

Q: ________ seek to enable employees to better meet the demands of their family and work lives. A) Sick leave B) Family-friendly benefits C) Pay plans D) Benefit management systems

Q: ________ provide services like personal legal and financial counseling, child care referrals, elder care referrals adoption assistance, mental health counseling, and life event planning. A) Social Security programs B) Pension plans C) Employee Assistance Programs D) Family-friendly benefits

Q: A defined contribution pension plan encourages employees to contribute a portion of their earnings to the fund with an employer contribution that is matched to that of the employee in whole or part is called a(n) ________. A) savings and thrift plan B) matching plan C) deferred profit-sharing plan D) employee stock ownership plan

Q: Jenny's pension plan encourages her to contribute at least 5% of her annual salary in addition to the set amount that her company contributes. She is given choices regarding how the money is invested. When she retires, the amount she has available will depend on how much she invested herself, and the rate of return on the investments she chose. This pension plan could be classified as ________. A) qualified, defined benefit B) non-contributory, defined benefit C) contributory, defined contribution D) contributory, defined benefit

Q: Malcolm is interviewing for a new job and he is evaluating the quality of the pension plans offered for each company he is considering. One company offers a pension plan in which the company will make all contributions to the plan and will base his pension benefit on a formula linked to his pay at the time of retirement and the number of years he was with the firm. This pension plan could be classified as ________. A) qualified, defined benefit B) non-contributory, defined benefit C) non-contributory, defined contribution D) contributory, qualified

Q: When an employer makes all of the contributions to the pension plan, the pension plan is classified as ________. A) qualified B) non-qualified C) defined contribution D) non-contributory

Q: Social Security provides all of the following benefits except: A) income if retirement is at age 62 or later and individual is insured under the Social Security Act. B) death benefits to surviving dependents for those insured under the Social Security Act C) Medicare. D) income if retirement is at age 55 or later.

Q: The full retirement age according to Social Security for individuals born in 1960 or later is ________. A) 62 B) 65 C) 67 D) 70

Q: The Comprehensive Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act requires most private employers to continue to make health benefits available to terminated or retired employees and their families for a period of time, generally ________. A) 6 months B) 12 months C) 18 months D) 24 months

Q: The Pregnancy Discrimination Act ________. A) requires employers to treat women affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions the same as any employee not able to work, with respect to all benefits, including sick leave and disability benefits, health and medical insurance B) covers pension plans and requires employers to have written plan documents that establish terms such as eligibility and participation C) prohibits an employer's health plan from using incentives to encourage employees to leave the hospital after childbirth after less than the legislatively-determined minimum stay D) sets minimum requirements for protecting individuals' health-care data accessibility and confidentiality

Q: Which regulation listed below requires that most private employers continue to make health benefits available to terminated or retired employees and their families for a period of time? A) Family and Medical Leave Act B) Pregnancy Discrimination Act C) Comprehensive Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act D) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Q: The ________ requires employers to treat women affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions the same as any employee not able to work, with respect to all benefits, including sick leave and disability benefits, health and medical insurance. A) Family and Medical Leave Act B) Pregnancy Discrimination Act C) Comprehensive Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act D) American Disabilities Act

Q: ________ are groups of health care providers that contract with employers, insurance companies, or third-party payers to provide medical care services at a reduced fee. A) PPOs B) HMOs C) DMOs D) Hospitals

Q: A(n) ________ is a medical organization consisting of specialists operating out of a community-based health care center that provides routine medical services to employees who pay a nominal fee. A) PPO B) HMO C) DMO D) hospital

Q: Which health benefit listed below is offered by almost all employers? A) mental health insurance B) chiropractic insurance C) medical care insurance D) wellness program

Q: Which of the following conditions must be met for an injured employee to earn workers' compensation from his or her employer? A) The injury must have occurred while the employee was on the job. B) The employee suffered the injury through no fault of his or her own. C) The employee must have worked for a minimum of 1250 hours during the past twelve consecutive months. D) All of the above.

Q: Which of the following benefits could be awarded as workers' compensation? A) cash benefit B) medical services C) time off with pay D) Both A and B.

Q: The goal of ________ is to provide sure, prompt income and medical benefits to work-related accident victims or their dependents, regardless of fault. A) severance pay B) sick leave C) workers' compensation D) the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Q: Who contributes funds to workers' compensation benefits? A) each state B) federal government C) employers D) All of the above.

Q: ________ provides benefits if a person is unable to work through no fault of his or her own. A) Supplemental pay benefits B) Unemployment insurance C) Retirement D) Health insurance