Q&A Hero

Q: Major challenges for a manager using the equity model lie in all of the following EXCEPT in _____. A) understanding that employees work within several social systems B) measuring employee assessments of inputs and outputs C) identifying employees references D) evaluating employee perceptions of inputs and outputs

Q: Thought-Creations Inc., a publishing company in Manhattan conducted a survey on employee satisfaction. The results indicated that a majority of its support staff considered their jobs to be monotonous. In order to make the requisite change, the management decided to combine the job duties of assistants, typists, and file clerks into a single job that requires all three kinds of work. Which of the following techniques of job design did this move constitute? A. Job rotation B. Job review C. Job enrichment D. Job evaluation E. Job extension

Q: According to the equity theory by J. Stacy Adams, _____. A) Ones own outcomes/Ones own inputs = Others outcomes/Others inputs B) Ones own inputs + Others inputs + Ones own outcomes = Others outcomes C) Ones own outcomes/Others input = Ones own inputs/Others outcomes D) Others inputs Ones own inputs Others outcomes = Ones own outcomes

Q: Which of the following is the objective of job enlargement? A. To make jobs less repetitive and more interesting B. To increase efficiency by identifying one best way to perform a job C. To decrease the burden of decision-making responsibilities for employees D. To assess the relative dollar value of each job to the organization E. To decrease the impact the job has on the lives of other people

Q: In which of the following scenarios will workers be less motivated to perform the job? A. When the job requires a variety of skills to be performed B. When the job requires completing the whole piece of work from beginning to end C. When the job has minimal impact on the lives of other people D. When the job allows individuals to take autonomous decisions about the job E. When a person receives clear information about performance effectiveness from the work itself

Q: The expectancy model depends on the employees perception of the relationship between all of the following EXCEPT _____. A) performance B) effort C) reward D) status

Q: In terms of the Job Characteristics Model, feedback refers to the extent to which _____. A. a job requires a variety of skills to carry out the tasks involved in the job and its duties B. employees are given the authority to make decisions C. performance appraisals are perceived as transparent and fair by employees D. a job requires a variety of skills to carry out the tasks involved E. a person receives clear information about performance effectiveness from the work itself

Q: Cathy feels that no matter how much effort she puts, she will never be able to submit her report on time. Hence, she does not want to work hard on her report. This indicates that her valence is closer to _____. A) 1 B) 0 C) -1 D) none of the above

Q: _____ represents the employees belief that a reward will be received once the task is accomplished. A) Shaping B) Expectancy C) Valence D) Instrumentality

Q: Within the Job Characteristics Model, _____ refers to the job characteristic that reflects the degree to which the job allows an individual to make decisions about the way the work is carried out. A. task knowledge B. task ability C. skill variety D. autonomy E. feedback

Q: _____ is the strength of belief that ones work-related effort will result in completion of a task. A) Shaping B) Expectancy C) Valence D) Instrumentality

Q: In the Job Characteristics Model, task identity is defined as the _____. A. extent to which a job requires a variety of skills to carry out the tasks involved B. degree to which the job allows an individual to make decisions about the way the work will be carried out C. the extent to which a person receives clear information about performance effectiveness from the work itself D. degree to which a job requires completing a whole piece of work from beginning to end E. extent to which the job has an important impact on the lives of other people

Q: _____ refers to the strength of a persons preference for receiving a reward. A) Shaping B) Expectancy C) Valence D) Instrumentality

Q: Which of the following models was developed by Richard Hackman and Greg Oldham to describe ways to make jobs more motivating? A. The Cognitive Dissonance Model B. The Situational Leadership Model C. The Job Characteristics Model D. The Push and Pull Model E. The Motivation-Hygiene Model

Q: According to the expectancy model, motivation = _____. A) valence expectancy/instrumentality B) valence expectancy instrumentality C) valence/expectancy instrumentality D) valence/expectancy/instrumentality

Q: Philip Matteo, a regional branch manager for a leading automobile company in the U.S., decides to design a manufacturing job based on the principles of industrial engineering. Following its successful implementation which of the following outcomes should he expect? A. Increased efficiency B. Increased complexity C. Decreased repetitiveness D. Increased skill requirements E. Decreased specialization

Q: Which of the following is true about applying industrial engineering to a job? A. It increases the complexity of the work. B. It eliminates the need for specialization in the job. C. It makes jobs less specialized and less repetitive. D. It provides measurable and practical benefits. E. It represents the best way to add meaningfulness to jobs.

Q: _____ is an internal belief regarding ones job-related capabilities and competencies. A) Self-esteem B) Self-efficacy C) Self-concept D) Self-integrity

Q: The industrial engineering approach is most likely to emphasize _____. A. elaborate work arrangements and reporting requirements B. streamlining jobs to make them simpler, efficient, and automatic C. designing jobs in such a way that they require minimal specialization D. exploring new and diverse ways of doing the same job E. creating complex and challenging jobs that require innovative employees

Q: _____ occurs when only some of the correct behaviors are reinforcedeither after a certain time or after a number of correct responses. A) Continuous reinforcement B) Partial reinforcement C) Extinction D) Shaping

Q: The process of defining how work will be performed and what tasks will be required in a given job is known as _____. A. job rotation B. job evaluation C. job design D. job enrichment E. job extension

Q: _____ occurs when reinforcement accompanies each correct behavior by an employee. A) Shaping B) Extinction C) Partial reinforcement D) Continuous reinforcement

Q: A(n) _____ is an area of personal capability that enables employees to perform their work successfully. A. competency B. entity C. identity D. duty E. opportunity

Q: _____ is the withholding of significant positive consequences that were previously provided for a desirable behavior. A) Positive reinforcement B) Shaping C) Extinction D) Negative reinforcement

Q: Which of the following best defines competency? A. It is the set of duties performed by a particular team. B. It is the list of tasks, duties, and responsibilities (TDRs) that a particular job entails. C. It is the set of related duties for accomplishing work. D. It is the activity that a work units members engage in to produce a given output. E. It is an area of personal capability that enables employees to perform successfully.

Q: _____ is the administration of an unfavorable consequence that discourages a certain behavior. A) Punishment B) Extinction C) Positive reinforcement D) Negative reinforcement

Q: _____ occurs when behavior is accompanied by removal of an unfavorable consequence. A) Power motivation B) Affiliation motivation C) Positive reinforcement D) Negative reinforcement

Q: Which of the following is likely to contribute to errors in a job analysis? A. Use of multiple analysis methods to obtain a detailed job analysis. B. Inputs from multiple sources like incumbents and supervisors. C. Fixed and unchanging job descriptions for various jobs. D. Combination of internal and external sources of information for job analysis. E. Creation of comprehensive and detailed job description.

Q: _____ is a systematic and progressive application of positive reinforcement. A) Scaling B) Extinction C) Expansion D) Shaping

Q: _____ involves assessing the relative dollar value of each job to the organization in order to set up fair pay structures. A. Job evaluation B. Career planning C. Training D. Performance appraisal E. Job rotation

Q: _____ provides a favorable consequence that encourages repetition of a behavior. A) Power motivation B) Affiliation motivation C) Positive reinforcement D) Negative reinforcement

Q: Which of the following HR activities is similar to analyzing a job that does not yet exist? A. Human resource planning B. Career development C. Job evaluation D. Work redesign E. Selection

Q: Which of the following statements is true of OB Mod? A) It states that internal needs lead to behavior. B) It states that external consequences tend to determine behavior. C) It places the least degree of control in the hands of the manager. D) It is based on the idea that behavior is independent of its consequences.

Q: A limitation in using the PAQ is that it _____. A. applies exclusively to similar job profiles B. measures only the inputs of a work process C. fails to provide computerized reports D. requires incumbents to spend time filling the questionnaires E. results in abstract reports that are of limited use

Q: In Alderfers E-R-G model, the _____ need involves the desire for self-esteem and self-actualization. A) existence B) relatedness C) growth D) experience

Q: To gather information about worker requirements, the Fleishman Job Analysis System typically asks _____ to evaluate a job in terms of the abilities required to perform the job. A. subject-matter experts B. supervisors C. HR specialists D. external analysts E. the top management

Q: Under the E-R-G model, employees are initially interested in satisfying their _____ needs. A) growth B) relatedness C) existence D) none of the above

Q: Which of the following job analysis methods requires subject-matter experts to evaluate a job in terms of abilities required to perform the job? A. Work Sampling Technique B. Participatory Observation Technique C. Fleishman Job Analysis System D. Position Analysis Questionnaire E. Conjoint Analysis Technique

Q: All of the following are examples of extrinsic motivators EXCEPT _____. A) retirement plans B) health insurance C) vacations D) recognition

Q: Which of the following is true of the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ)? A. It considers only the inputs of a work process, ignoring the outputs. B. PAQ reports provide concrete recommendations useful for writing job descriptions or redesigning jobs. C. PAQ ratings cannot be used to compare dissimilar jobs. D. The descriptions in the PAQ reports are very clear and specific. E. The PAQ is meant to be completed only by job analysts trained in this method.

Q: Which of the following is the last level of human needs in Maslows theory of motivation? A) Belonging and social needs B) Physiological needs C) Self-actualization and fulfillment needs D) Safety and security needs

Q: The _____ Questionnaire is a standardized job analysis questionnaire containing 194 questions about work behaviors, work conditions, and job characteristics that apply to a wide variety of jobs. A. Utilization Analysis B. Fleishman Job Analysis C. Work Flow Design D. Conjoint Analysis E. Position Analysis

Q: Which of the following is classified as a higher-order need in Maslows hierarchy of needs? A) A safe work environment B) Being loved C) A comfortable retirement plan D) Need for food, air, and water

Q: Which of the following is true of O*NET? A. It provides listings of fixed job titles and narrow task descriptions. B. It uses a common language that generalizes across jobs to describe the abilities, work styles, work activities, and work context required for various occupations. C. It represents the first attempt made by the U.S. Department of Labor to match the demand and supply of labor. D. It uses a popular Internet-based software platform to provide information about the availability of qualified labor for governmental professions only. E. It was created by the U.S. Department of Labor in the 1930s as a vehicle for helping the new public employment system link the demand and the supply of skills in the U.S. workforce.

Q: In the 1930s, the U.S. Department of Labor created the _____ as a vehicle for helping the new public employment system link the demand for skills and the supply of skills in the U.S. workforce. A. Career Development Facilitator (CDF) B. Dictionary of Occupational Titles (DOT) C. Occupational Information Network (O NET) D. Standard Occupational Classification (SOC) E. Selected Characteristics of Occupations (SCO)

Q: Which of the following is classified as a lower-order need in Maslows hierarchy of needs? A) A sense of belonging B) The social environment at work C) A safe work environment D) A feeling of self-actualization

Q: For analyzing technical skill levels, the best source for job information may be ____, who have vast experience rating a wide range of jobs. A. HR executives B. incumbents C. supervisors D. line managers E. external job analysts

Q: Which of the following is a secondary need? A) Competitiveness B) Food and water C) Sleep D) None of the above

Q: Which of the following is a drawback of relying solely on incumbents for job information? A. They lack in-depth knowledge of the tasks and duties of the job. B. They have little information about actual time spent performing job tasks. C. They may have an incentive to exaggerate what they do. D. They are less accurate in reporting safety-related risk factors. E. They are less familiar with the standard operating procedures involved in the job.

Q: Which of the following is a primary need? A) Competitiveness B) Self-esteem C) Sleep D) Respect

Q: Which of the following is true about knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) that are required for a job? A. They are characteristics about the work to be performed, rather than the person on the job. B. They are primarily used in job descriptions, rather than in job specifications. C. They play an important role in interviews and selection decisions. D. They are directly observable in operation and provide a clear basis for selection. E. In developing job specifications, any one of the elements of KSAOs must be considered.

Q: _____ is a drive to influence people, take control, and change situations. A) Affiliation motivation B) Power motivation C) Experience motivation D) Achievement motivation

Q: _____ refers to factual or procedural information that is necessary for successfully performing a task. A. Knowledge B. Attitude C. Experience D. Personality E. Outlook

Q: Affiliation-oriented managers may have difficulty in _____. A) assigning challenging tasks B) directing work activities C) monitoring work effectiveness D) all of the above

Q: _____ is a drive to relate to people on a social basisto work with compatible people and experience a sense of community. A) Achievement motivation B) Affiliation motivation C) Experience motivation D) Power motivation

Q: Skill is defined as _____. A. the past experience a person has in performing similar jobs B. the factual or procedural information that is necessary for successfully performing a task C. an individuals level of proficiency at performing a particular task D. the personality traits such as someones persistence or motivation to achieve E. the tangible aspects of an employees abilities like licenses or certifications

Q: Carla Warne is an HR executive looking for a new job. She comes across an advertisement in a newspaper seeking applications for the post of an HR manager. The advertisement exclusively highlights requirements such as strong communication skills, excellent teamwork, and leadership skills. These requirements constitute the _____. A. Knowledge B. Personality traits C. Skill D. Responsibility E. Ability

Q: Fiona is a manager in a software firm who finds it difficult to delegate effectively. Her subordinates find it difficult to satisfy her high demands. Which of the following statements best describes Fiona? A) She is an affiliation-oriented manager. B) She is a power-oriented manager. C) She is an achievement-oriented manager. D) She is an experience-oriented manager.

Q: Job specifications differ from job descriptions in that job specifications primarily describe: A. the list of the tasks and responsibilities that the job entails. B. the observable actions that comprise the various job demands. C. the reporting relationships within the division which includes the job. D. the functional needs of the position under study. E. the qualities a person performing the job must possess.

Q: _____ is a drive some people have to pursue and attain challenging goals. A) Achievement motivation B) Experience motivation C) Affiliation motivation D) Power motivation

Q: Equity sensitivity suggests that individuals have similar preferences for equity.

Q: A _____ is a list of the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) that an individual must have to perform a particular job. A. job rotation B. job definition C. job evaluation D. job scope E. job specification

Q: Which of the following is an appropriate course of action while formulating job descriptions? A. Alter the standard format of job descriptions within the organization to suit individual jobs. B. Prohibit using the phrase and other duties as requested in job descriptions because it leads to ambiguity. C. Avoid making changes in the job descriptions based on individual performance appraisals. D. Prepare a new job description whenever a new job is created in the organization. E. Once standardized and created, a job description must not be changed.

Q: A complex incentive is often more motivating than a simple one.

Q: If both expectancy and instrumentality are low, then motivation will be weak even if the reward has high valence.

Q: Job descriptions generally contain all of the following components EXCEPT _____. A. the job title B. a list of essential duties C. a brief description of the responsibilities D. the details of pay and benefits attached to the job E. the details of the tasks involved

Q: Which of the following refers to a list of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that a job entails? A. job evaluation B. job description C. utilization analysis D. conjoint analysis E. job standardization.

Q: Instrumentality refers to the strength of a persons preference for receiving a reward.

Q: Self-generated feedback has little motivational value.

Q: The process of getting detailed information about jobs is known as _____. A. job analysis B. job definition C. job training D. job swapping E. job rotation

Q: Self-efficacy can be judged either on a specific task or across a variety of performance duties.

Q: What is the result of an organization structure that is strongly based on function? A. Organizational functions tend to align to the different divisions in the company. B. Jobs tend to involve teamwork or broad responsibility. C. Focus tends to be primarily on products or customer groups. D. Workers tend to work alone at highly specialized jobs. E. Decision-making tends to be highly decentralized.

Q: Learning is slower with continuous reinforcement than with partial reinforcement.

Q: In the context of a work flow analysis, materials, equipment, and human resources needed to perform the tasks collectively constitute the _____. A. outputs B. jobs C. work processes D. operating procedures E. inputs

Q: Continuous reinforcement may be desirable in some instances to encourage quick learning.

Q: The final stage in work flow analysis is to identify the _____. A. tangible outputs of a particular work unit B. operating procedures to be applied in production C. work processes used to generate the outputs of the work unit D. inputs used in the development of the work unit's product E. market forces of demand and supply for the outputs

Q: Once the outputs are identified, the next step in a work flow analysis involves _____. A. identifying the materials needed to generate the output B. determining the human resource requirements for production C. examining the work processes used to generate those outputs D. taking an inventory of the special equipment, facilities, and systems needed for production E. estimating the data and information needed by the work unit

Q: Negative reinforcement occurs when behavior is accompanied by removal of an unfavorable consequence.

Q: _____ are the activities that a teams members engage in to produce a given output. A. Work processes B. Task identities C. Group dynamics D. Job analyses E. Ergonomic activities

Q: Content theories argue that external consequences tend to determine behavior.