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Human Resource
Q:
Many problems with downsizing can be reduced by:
A. slashing jobs across the board.
B. allowing workers to choose a buyout package in exchange for leaving.
C. engaging in better human resources planning.
D. avoiding unionization in the organization.
E. laying off only the older workers in the organization.
Q:
Give a brief description of a gain-sharing plan.
Q:
Which of the following is a reason why many of the downsizing efforts fail?
A. Surviving employees could become self-absorbed.
B. The company may become less competitive in the industry.
C. The overall costs incurred by the company may increase.
D. Governmental interference could cause problems.
E. Downsizing could result in decreased diversity.
Q:
How do wage incentives make a supervisors job more complex?
Q:
Which of the following is a disadvantage of downsizing?
A. It cannot be used to reduce the number of managers.
B. It would result in reduced future competitiveness.
C. It cannot provide an immediate solution to labor surplus.
D. It hurts long-term organizational effectiveness.
E. It does not have an immediate effect on costs.
Q:
With regard to performance management, list the ways in which employee performance can be managed and improved.
Q:
The primary reason organizations engage in downsizing is to:
A. attain larger profit margins.
B. promote future competitiveness.
C. bring in additional skills to the organization.
D. thwart unionizing efforts within a given facility.
E. strengthen the social networks in the organization.
Q:
When is a fundamental attribution bias exhibited?
Q:
Which of the following is true of downsizing?
A. Downsizing improves long-term organizational effectiveness.
B. The negative effect of downsizing is especially low among firms that engage in high-involvement work practices.
C. Downsizing often disrupts the social networks through which people are creative and flexible.
D. The negative impact of downsizing is especially low for those organizations that emphasize research and development.
E. Downsizing campaigns only eliminate people who are replaceable.
Q:
Explain the concept of self-fulfilling prophecy.
Q:
Core competency refers to:
A. contracting with another organization to perform a broad set of services.
B. the planned elimination of large numbers of personnel with the goal of enhancing the organizations competitiveness.
C. the construction and application of statistical models that predict labor demand for the next year, given relatively objective statistics from the previous year.
D. a set of knowledge and skills that make the organization superior to competitors and create value for customers.
E. the attempts to determine the supply of and demand for various types of human resources within the organization.
Q:
What are the problems encountered in the self-appraisal process?
Q:
Which of the following options for avoiding an expected labor shortage has the benefit of being a relatively fast solution with high revocability?
A. Retrained Transfer
B. Turnover Reductions
C. New External Hires
D. Overtime
E. Technological Innovation
Q:
Explain the importance of mutual goal setting between supervisor and employee. Mention at least two employee desires that make mutual goal setting important.
Q:
Which of the following options for reducing an expected labor surplus has the benefit of being a relatively fast solution, but has the disadvantage of being high in human suffering?
A. Hiring Freeze
B. Early Retirement
C. Retraining
D. Work Sharing
E. Downsizing
Q:
Who does the Equal Pay Act of 1963 affect, and what does the law demand?
Q:
Which of the following is a strategy to avoid labor shortage where the results can be obtained fast?
A. Technological Innovation
B. Retrained Transfers
C. Turnover Reductions
D. Outsourcing
E. New External Hires
Q:
Explain the concept of valence of money.
Q:
Which of the following is a strategy of avoiding a labor surplus where the amount of human suffering caused is high?
A. Retraining
B. Demotions
C. Hiring Freeze
D. Early Retirement
E. Natural Attrition
Q:
Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to the success of a gain-sharing plan? A) Moderately small size of the business unit B) Existence of controllable cost areas C) Relative stability of the business D) Lack of receptiveness to employee participation
Q:
_____ provide an organization with a highly flexible workforce that can fill in when someone is absent.
A) Skill-based pay systems
B) Profit-sharing plans
C) Piece rate systems
D) Gain-sharing plans
Q:
Which of the following strategies could be used to avoid a labor shortage?
A. Reduced pay
B. Work sharing
C. Hiring freeze
D. Transfers
E. Retrained transfers
Q:
Which of the following is a fast option that can be used to avoid a labor surplus with only a moderate amount of suffering caused to the employees?
A. Pay reductions
B. Transfers
C. Demotions
D. Early retirement
E. Retraining
Q:
A _____ encourages employee suggestions, provides an incentive for coordination and teamwork, and promotes improved communication.
A) skill-based pay system
B) profit-sharing plan
C) piece rate system
D) gain-sharing plan
Q:
Why is hiring new employees for every labor shortage not preferable?
A. The process will lead to an artificial scarcity in the labor market.
B. It would lead to reduced organizational control over the workers and process.
C. Selecting new employees attracts too many discrimination law suits.
D. If the shortage becomes a surplus, the organization may have to lay off employees.
E. The process may result in reduced quality and may affect standardization.
Q:
Which of the following statements holds true for profit sharing?
A) This plan generally works well for slow-growing organizations.
B) Some workers prefer this plan since profits are normally predictable.
C) Employees must wait for their reward, and this lengthy delay diminishes its impact.
D) Profits are directly related to an employees effort on the job.
Q:
The goals that are set in the human resource planning process should come directly from:
A. the mid-level managers.
B. the analysis of labor supply and demand.
C. the judgments and choices made by the technical experts in the organization.
D. the feedback provided by the organization's customers.
E. the line workers at the grassroots level.
Q:
_____ is the problem associated with wage incentives that occurs when employees are able to reach standard output with less than reasonable levels of effort.
A) Output restriction
B) Rate setting
C) Loose rate
D) Groupthink
Q:
In the human resource planning process, which of the following is the immediate next step of the forecasting step?
A. Goal setting and strategic planning
B. Evaluation and feedback
C. Program implementation
D. Program evaluation
E. Performance evaluation
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of a wage incentive system that operates successfully?
A) It results in an increase in labor costs per unit of production.
B) It results in employees being satisfied from a job well done.
C) It merely provides economic rewards.
D) It discourages cooperation between workers.
Q:
Planners need to combine statistical forecasts of labor supply with expert judgments because:
A. it would motivate the experts in the organization.
B. subjective judgments are always more reliable than historical data.
C. historical data may not always reliably indicate future trends.
D. statistical methods fail to account for historical trends.
E. statistical forecasts work well only in a dynamic environment.
Q:
Which of the following is a disadvantage of incentives linking pay with performance?
A) Narrowness of performance criteria
B) Weakening of instrumentality beliefs
C) System leniency
D) All of the above
Q:
Peter was awarded a bonus for meeting the sales target set by his company for the first quarter of 2013. Which of the following incentive measures has the company used to reward Peter?
A) Amount of output
B) Quality of output
C) Success in reaching goals
D) Cost efficiency
Q:
Questions such as Where did people who were in each job category go? and Where did people now in each job category come from? can be answered with the help of:
A. propensity analysis.
B. leading indicators.
C. trend analysis.
D. multiple regression.
E. a transitional matrix.
Q:
Determining the internal labor supply calls for a detailed analysis of:
A. how many people are willing to work for the organization.
B. how many people are currently in various job categories.
C. the financial performance and profitability of the company.
D. the future vacancies that will be available in the company.
E. the compensation strategies and recruitment methods used by the company.
Q:
Which of the following is an objective of an economic incentive system?
A) Facilitating recruitment
B) Retention of good employees
C) Satisfying key employee needs
D) All of the above
Q:
Which of the following terms is a chart that lists job categories held in one period and shows the proportion of employees in each of those job categories in a future period?
A. Trend Analysis
B. Leading Indicator Method
C. Propensity Analysis
D. Transitional Matrix
E. Labor Bureau Statistics
Q:
With the Galatea effect, high expectations by employees themselves lead to _____.
A) high performance
B) frustration
C) self-doubt
D) behavioral bias
Q:
Trend analysis refers to:
A. a pooling of the "best guesses," or subjective judgments, of experts to predict labor demand and supply.
B. the use of subjective judgments to understand relationships among variables during fluctuating and unstable conditions.
C. a process that accurately predicts labor demand for the next year using leading indicators.
D. a comparison of the proportion of employees in protected groups with the proportion that each group represents in the relevant labor market.
E. a statistical method of forecasting that uses the proportion of employees in various job categories for making predictions.
Q:
The concept of perceptual set enables us to witness the power of the _____.
A) fundamental attribution bias
B) Pareto principle
C) self-fulfilling prophecy
D) self-serving bias
Q:
Which of the following terms refers to objective measures that accurately predict future labor demand?
A. Performance indicators
B. Transitional matrices
C. Functional pointers
D. Coincident pointers
E. Leading indicators
Q:
In general, people tend to exhibit a _____, claiming undue credit for their success and minimizing their own responsibility for problems.
A) fundamental attribution bias
B) perceptual set
C) self-fulfilling prophecy
D) self-serving bias
Q:
Which of the following is an advantage of statistical forecasting methods?
A. They are particularly useful in dynamic environments.
B. Under the right conditions, they provide predictions that are much more precise than judgmental methods.
C. They are particularly useful in predicting important events that have no historical precedent.
D. They are invariably better than the "best guesses" of experts.
E. They can be used to reduce dependence on secondary data for making forecasts and predictions.
Q:
_____ is an example of a situational attribution.
A) Great effort
B) Poor ability
C) Task difficulty
D) All of the above
Q:
The first step in the human resource planning process is:
A. forecasting.
B. goal setting.
C. program implementation.
D. program evaluation.
E. performance evaluation.
Q:
_____ is the process by which people interpret and assign causes for their own and others behavior.
A) Motivation
B) Attribution
C) Valence
D) Feedback
Q:
On the whole, research suggests that realistic job previews have a strong, consistent effect on minimizing employee turnover.
Q:
A(n) _____ is the process of systematically gathering data on a persons skills, abilities, and behaviors from a variety of sourcesthe manager, peers, subordinates, and even customers or clients.
A) appraisal interview
B) survey
C) 360-degree feedback
D) balanced scorecard
Q:
The recruiter affects the nature of both the job vacancy and the applicants generated.
Q:
Which of the following statements holds true for performance feedback?
A) It should seldom point the way toward goals or newly targeted actions.
B) The manner of feedback presentation does not have a significant impact on the employees performance.
C) It leads to both improved performance and improved attitudesif handled properly by the manager.
D) It should rely on subjective opinions and references rather than on objective data.
Q:
Private employment agencies serve primarily the blue-collar workers, while public employment agencies mostly serve the white-collar workers.
Q:
_____ is the hallmark of modern appraisal philosophy that can help employees fine-tune their performance better if they know how they are doing in the eyes of the organization.
A) Management goal setting
B) Clarification of behavioral expectations
C) An extensive feedback system
D) Performance orientation
Q:
Many of the people reading classified ads are either over- or underqualified for the position.
Q:
Which of the following hallmarks of the modern appraisal philosophy states that the effort put forth by employees must result in the attainment of desired outcomes?
A) Performance orientation
B) Focus on goals or objectives
C) Mutual goal setting between supervisor and employee
D) Clarification of behavioral expectations
Q:
Referrals are people who apply for a vacancy without prompting from the organization.
Q:
Which of the following is the final step in the management by objectives cycle?
A) Objective setting
B) Periodic reviews
C) Action planning
D) Annual evaluation
Q:
Recruitment sources affect the characteristics of both the vacancies and the applicants.
Q:
Modern appraisal philosophy emphasizes _____ and future goals.
A) current seniority
B) past evaluations
C) employee deficiencies
D) present performance
Q:
Personnel policies influence the kinds of job applicants an organization reaches.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a part of the performance appraisal process?
A) Sharing performance information with the employee
B) Searching for ways to improve employee performance
C) Assessing company goals and objectives
D) Evaluating employee performance
Q:
In the context of compensation management complying with federal and state laws, the _____ affects employers who are engaged in interstate commerce and most employees of federal, state, and local governments.
A) Equal Pay Act of 1963
B) Sherman Antitrust Act
C) Patriot Act of 2001
D) Enforcement Act of 1870
Q:
In general, all companies have to make decisions in three areas of recruiting: personnel policies, recruitment sources, and the characteristics and behavior of the recruiter.
Q:
_____ is the process similar to the break-even analysis in which the employee identifies and compares personal costs and rewards to determine the point at which they are approximately equal.
A) Cost behavior modification
B) Appraisal philosophy
C) 360-degree feedback
D) Cost-reward comparison
Q:
The steps in a workforce utilization review are identical to the steps in the HR planning process.
Q:
Which of the following combinations creates a desirable instrumentality condition?
A) High level of performance, low level of economic reward
B) Low level of performance, high level of economic reward
C) High level of performance, moderate level of economic reward
D) Low level of performance, low level of economic reward
Q:
Implementation that ties planning and recruiting to the organizations strategy and to its efforts to develop employees becomes a complete program of talent management.
Q:
According to behavior modification principles, when employees see a direct connection between _____, instrumentality is high.
A) performance and reward
B) seniority and promotions
C) motivation and expectancy
D) extrinsic satisfaction and intrinsic reward
Q:
To ensure success with an outsourcing strategy, companies should outsource work that requires tight security.
Q:
Which of the following concepts explained in the expectancy theory means that if money is to act as a strong motivator, an employee must want more of it?
A) Motivation
B) Valence
C) Drive
D) Instrumentality
Q:
Contracting with another organization to perform a broad set of services is called outsourcing.
Q:
Which of the following pay program components is NOT an example of a noneconomic program that may supplement an organizations complete pay program?
A) Comp time
B) On-site day care
C) Profit sharing
D) Wellness-promotion programs
Q:
If the person providing the service is a contractor and not an employee, the company is not supposed to directly supervise the worker.
Q:
Which of the following components of a pay program is NOT an example of a nonwork reward?
A) Vacations
B) Seniority increase
C) Unemployment compensation
D) Pensions
Q:
The use of temporary workers might burden the organization with additional administrative tasks.
Q:
Money has an economic value as a medium of exchange for allocation of economic resources, but it is also a _____ medium of exchange.
A) psychological
B) virtual
C) social
D) symbolic
Q:
The most widespread methods for eliminating labor shortages are reducing work hours and endorsing early-retirement programs.
Q:
_____ is a component of the incentive foundation of a complete pay program.
A) Seniority pay
B) Performance reward
C) Unemployment compensation
D) Overtime
Q:
Downsizing leads to a loss of talent.
Q:
In the context of the disadvantages associated with skill-based pay, some employees may qualify themselves for skill areas that they are unlikely to use, causing the organization to pay them higher rates.
Q:
The negative effect of downsizing would be low among firms that use performance-related pay incentives.