Q&A Hero

Human Resource

Q: Readiness for training is a combination of employee characteristics and positive work environment that permit training.
Q: Chapter 9 Employee Attitudes and Their Effects True/False Questions
Q: The task analysis phase of needs assessment includes determining employees readiness for training.
Q: List the guidelines for changing employee attitudes.
Q: Usually, needs assessment for training begins with a person analysis.
Q: What is the difference between reliability and validity?
Q: What is the first step in using job satisfaction information?
Q: Instructional design logically should begin with needs assessment.
Q: What are the ways by which managers stay in touch with the level of employee satisfaction?
Q: The last step in the instructional design process involves choosing a training method.
Q: Training refers to any planned effort by a firm to facilitate the learning of job-related knowledge, skills, or behavior by employees.
Q: What are organizational citizenship behaviors? Provide an example of such behavior.[DM1]
Q: Describe rule-bending.
Q: Usually a supervisor makes the final employee selection decision.
Q: The multiple-hurdle model is based on a process of increasing the number of candidates at each stage of the selection process.
Q: When does presenteeism occur? Describe the common factors of presenteeism.
Q: Interviews are the least expensive method of employee selection.
Q: Excessive employee turnover can have multiple negative effects on an organization. List the various negative effects of excessive employee turnover and the costs associated with employee separation and vacancy.
Q: Interviewing is considered the most accurate basis for making a selection decision.
Q: List any three factors that can inhibit employee commitment.
Q: In a behavior description interview, the interviewer asks the candidate how he or she handled a type of situation in the past.
Q: What is it about larger organizations that contribute to lower levels of job satisfaction?
Q: In a nondirective interview, the interviewer asks questions from an established set of questions.
Q: Which of the following statements is a guideline for changing employee attitudes? A) Closely tie the reward system to team members seniority. B) Discourage employees from participation in decision making. C) Set challenging goals with employees so those with achievement drives can experience the opportunity for satisfaction through their accomplishment. D) Show appreciation and encouragement for members solely on the basis of their seniority and decrease the amount of feedback for senior team members.
Q: The Polygraph Act legalized the use of polygraph tests for employment screening in most organizations.
Q: Which of the following statements is true of intranets? A) It is used for external communications. B) It is used to encourage a conversation between customers. C) It refers to public computer networks accessible to all online viewers. D) It facilitates collaboration between teams in an organization.
Q: The results of a personality test are the most reliable.
Q: _____ is the capacity to measure what the survey instrument claims to measure. A) Reliability B) Presenteeism C) Validity D) Turnover
Q: The Civil Rights Act of 1991 encourages the use of race norming as a selection tool.
Q: _____ is the capacity of a survey instrument to produce consistent results, regardless of who administers it or when someone responded to it. A) Validity B) Reliability C) Turnover D) Presenteeism
Q: Race norming refers to establishing different norms for hiring members of different racial groups.
Q: Which of the following is an indirect indicator of job satisfaction? A) Tardiness B) Grievances C) Turnover D) Exit interviews
Q: Achievement tests assess how well a person can acquire skills and abilities
Q: Which of the following statements is true about the use of surveys for measuring job satisfaction? A) They restrict the flow of communication in the organization. B) They serve as an emotional release. C) They merely assess positive attitudes of employees. D) They discourage feedback on proposed organizational changes.
Q: Aptitude tests measure a persons existing knowledge and skills.
Q: Which of the following is most likely a reason against unethical rule-bending? A) Ambiguous rules B) Performance pressures C) Social pressures D) Personal embarrassment
Q: Most organizations check references as soon as they receive the candidates application form.
Q: Which of the following is most likely to be a reason for unethical rule-bending? A) Fear of job loss B) Paying back a favor C) Creating an unwanted precedent D) Personal embarrassment
Q: Review of rsums is most valid when the content of the rsums is evaluated in terms of the elements of a job description.
Q: Which of the following ailments is the most prevalent reason for employee presenteeism? A) Sinus trouble or allergies B) Migraine headaches C) Acid reflux disease D) Arthritis
Q: An application form can request information regarding an applicants marital status and race.
Q: Employers with lower turnover do all of the following EXCEPT _____. A) watching for early signs of dissatisfaction B) offering recognition and praise regularly C) providing harsh criticisms D) clarifying job expectations
Q: The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that employers obtain a candidates consent before downloading his/her rsum from an on-line job site.
Q: Which of the following is NOT a trait associated with turnover personality? A) Introversion B) Bitterness C) Cynicism D) Hedonism
Q: Under the ADA, when an employer makes hiring decisions, he is permitted to use employment physical exams that could reveal a psychological or physical disability.
Q: Which of the following is NOT a negative effect of turnover in an organization? A) Separation costs B) Vacancy costs C) Reengineering costs D) Training costs
Q: _____ is the proportion of employees leaving an organization during a given time period. A) Tardiness B) Turnover C) Spillover D) Entitlement
Q: Equal employment opportunity laws affect the kinds of information an organization may gather on application forms and in interviews.
Q: According to the characterizations of employee responses, being passively destructive is classified as _____. A) exit B) voice C) loyalty D) neglect
Q: Selection procedures that provide economic value greater than the cost of using them are said to have utility.
Q: According to the characterizations of employee responses, remaining in the organization but not being verbal about problems is classified as _____. A) exit B) voice C) loyalty D) neglect
Q: Content validation is most suitable for measuring abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership ability.
Q: According to the characterizations of employee responses, constructive criticism of disliked policies is classified as _____. A) exit B) voice C) loyalty D) neglect
Q: Predictive validation is less time consuming and the easiest to administer.
Q: A predictive criterion-related validation strategy correlates job incumbents scores on a test with existing measures of their performance.
Q: According to the characterizations of employee responses, voluntary departure is classified as _____. A) exit B) voice C) loyalty D) neglect
Q: Which of the following is an example of physical withdrawal? A) Daydreaming on the job B) Retaliation for presumed wrongs C) Early departures from work D) Loss of initiative
Q: The degree to which a measure is free from random error refers to its validity.
Q: Which of the following is an example of psychological withdrawal? A) Unauthorized absences from work B) Daydreaming on the job C) Early departures from work D) Extended breaks
Q: A reliable measurement generates consistent results.
Q: Which of the following is a factor that stimulates employee commitment? A) Failure to follow through B) Inflated egos C) Insincere gratitude D) Reminders of employee investments
Q: The process of selecting employees remains constant for all organizations and for all jobs.
Q: Which of the following is a factor that inhibits employee commitment? A) Inflated egos B) Investments in employees C) Employee autonomy D) Reminders of employee investments
Q: Discuss the multiple-hurdle model and the compensatory model of arriving at a personnel selection decision.
Q: _____ commitment encourages employees to stay because of their high investments in the organization (time and effort) and the economic and social losses they would incur if they left. A) Normative B) Experiential C) Continuance D) Affective
Q: Traditional job interviews have demonstrated low validity and reliability, and they are a relatively expensive method of personnel selection. Recommend steps organizations can take to avoid these pitfalls.
Q: _____ commitment is the choice to stay attached because of strong cultural or familial ethics that drive the employees to do so. A) Affective B) Experiential C) Continuance D) Normative
Q: Describe the different types of interviews that can be used for employee selection.
Q: _____ commitment is a positive emotional state in which employees want to exert effort and choose to remain with the organization. A) Continuance B) Affective C) Normative D) Experiential
Q: Why are drug tests a controversial component of the personnel selection process? What are some of the ways in which organizations can avoid problems associated with drug testing?
Q: _____ is the degree to which an employee identifies with the organization and wants to continue actively participating in it. A) Organizational identification B) Perceived organizational support C) Organizational commitment D) Organizational socialization
Q: What are the two broad categories of employment tests?
Q: Based on Viktor Frankls premise on freedom to choose ones attitude, which of the following is NOT one of the seven core principles for helping employees find meaning through their work? A) Let the situation guide your attitude. B) Identify and commit to meaningful values and goals. C) Shift your focus of attention when stressed. D) Recognize ways in which you undermine your own happiness.
Q: Discuss the burden placed on people or organizations contacted as references for job candidates. How do organizations cope with this burden?
Q: Fiona is having a difficult time balancing life and work. Whenever she plans to attend her daughters sporting events, she is called back to work to organize important business meetings. At work, she feels guilty about not spending enough time with her daughter. This is an example of the _____ effect. A) elemental B) spillover C) bandwagon D) domino
Q: Discuss how the Civil Rights Act of 1991 and the Americans with Disabilities Act impact the selection process.
Q: People who are generally pessimistic, downbeat, irritable, and even abrasive are said to have _____ affectivity. A) neutral B) vertical C) negative D) horizontal
Q: Briefly describe how concurrent and predictive criterion-related researches are conducted and identify at least two potential advantages of predictive validation.
Q: What are the managerial concerns about participation?
Q: Define what is meant by reliability, validity, and utility in the employment selection context.
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