Q&A Hero

Q: Describe any three potential problems of a team.

Q: The primary use of assessment centers is to identify: A. whether employees have the personality characteristics and skills needed for managerial positions. B. the strengths and weaknesses of the organization. C. the decision processes and communication styles that inhibit production. D. the opportunities and threats of an organization. E. the factors that inhibit group performance.

Q: Adjourning

Q: Which of the following is true about an assessment center? A. An assessment center is a meeting room where a team of seven to ten employees is assigned a problem and must work together to solve it within a certain time period. B. At an assessment center, multiple raters or evaluators evaluate employees' performance on a number of exercises. C. It is an office that looks into the process of collecting information and providing feedback to employees about their behavior, communication style, or skills. D. At an assessment center, senior managers hold a test that identifies individuals' preferences for source of energy, means of information gathering, way of decision making, and lifestyle. E. It refers to an on-site location where the corporate leaders design a tool that gathers ratings of a manager's use of skills associated with success in managing.

Q: List the various stages in the life-cycle of a team.

Q: Which of the following is true of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)? A. It is an appropriate tool for measuring job performance. B. People who take the MBTI generally do not find it to be an enjoyable experience. C. MBTI scores are stable over time. D. The MBTI is a valuable tool for understanding communication styles. E. Research has concluded that the MBTI is highly valid, reliable, and effective.

Q: What are cross-functional teams?

Q: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, individuals who are Introverted, Sensing, Thinking, and Judging (known as ISTJs): A. appear to their colleagues to be too task-oriented. B. tend to take a lot of time to make decisions. C. are perceived as friendly and outgoing. D. respond well to unexpected opportunities. E. are mostly unorganized and impractical.

Q: Distinguish between the classical organization theory and the matrix organization theory.

Q: The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) identifies individuals' preferences for source of energy, means of information gathering, way of decision making, and _____. A. succession planning B. self-assessment C. lifestyle D. value system E. goal setting

Q: _____ are groups of individuals from around the globe that meet through the use of technological aids without all of their members being present in the same location. A) Process consultants B) Product consultants C) Virtual teams D) Boundary spanners

Q: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, individuals with a Perceiving (P) preference: A. are conclusive and focused on goals. B. are comfortable with changing a decision. C. like deadlines. D. focus more on possibilities and relationships among facts. E. do not like surprises.

Q: Boundary spanners often have little or no authority, and so their task is best accomplished through skills such as _____. A) avoiding external support B) social loafing C) social awareness D) withdrawal from group activities

Q: The decision-making dimension of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator relates to the: A. steps or actions individuals take when making decisions. B. amount of consideration given to others' feelings when making a decision. C. individuals' tendency to be flexible and adaptable. D. confidence and speed with which decisions are reached. E. individual's interpersonal strength and vitality.

Q: Which of the following is a typical supervisory role in a self-managing team structure? A) Coordinator B) Facilitator C) Expert D) Teacher

Q: According to the lifestyle dichotomy of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, individuals with a _____ preference enjoy surprises and dislike deadlines. A. Judging (J) B. Perceiving (P) C. Thinking (T) D. Feeling (F) E. Sensing (S)

Q: Which of the following is a typical supervisory role in a traditional structure? A) Facilitator B) Resource allocator C) Champion and cheerleader D) Problem solver

Q: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, individuals with a Sensing (S) preference: A. enjoy surprises. B. tend to rush into decision making. C. tend to focus less on possibilities and relationships among facts. D. focus on interpersonal relationships. E. tend to gather the facts and details to prepare for a decision.

Q: Which of the following is a disadvantage of self-managing teams? A) Reduced flexibility of staff B) Higher turnover rates C) Extended implementation time D) Lower organizational commitment levels

Q: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, Extroverted types (E) gain energy through: A. interpersonal relationships. B. personal thoughts. C. gathering facts and details. D. establishing goals. E. inner feelings.

Q: Which of the following is an advantage of self-managing teams? A) Improved flexibility of staff B) Higher turnover rates C) Lower training investment D) Short period of implementation

Q: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, Introverted types (I) gain energy by _____. A. focusing on inner thoughts B. focusing on interpersonal relationships C. gathering facts and details D. focusing less on facts and more on possibilities E. trying to be objective in making decisions

Q: _____ are natural work groups that are given substantial autonomy and in return are asked to control their own behavior and produce significant results. A) Leader-managed teams B) Supervisor-managed teams C) Self-managing teams D) Management-led teams

Q: The energy dichotomy of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator indicates _____. A. the preparations individuals make before making decisions B. the amount of consideration individuals give to their own and others values and feelings C. individuals' degree of introversion or extroversion D. the hard facts of a situation E. individuals' tendency to be either flexible or structured

Q: Which of the following is most likely to be an employee territory? A) Cubicles B) Conference room C) Library D) Parking space

Q: The _____ helps team members see themselves in action by focusing on what is currently happening around them. A) negotiator B) process consultant C) market maven D) product expert

Q: Collecting information and providing feedback to employees about their behavior is called _____. A. internship B. job enlargement C. assessment D. job rotation E. externship

Q: The four general approaches that companies use to develop employees include: A. formal education, assessment, job experiences, and interpersonal relationships. B. job rotation, promotion, transfer, and job sharing. C. psychological tests, assessment centers, Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, and performance feedback. D. business games, formal courses, team building, and assessment. E. TQM, Six Sigma, lean manufacturing, and quality function deployment.

Q: Which of the following is classified as a presentation skill? A) Diagnosing issues B) Building trust C) Designing programs for change D) Speaking in public

Q: Which of the following is an interpersonal skill? A) Preparing reports B) Diagnosing issues C) Building trust D) Designing programs for change

Q: _____ help(s) employees select development activities that prepare them to meet their career goals. A. Career path B. Training C. Policy analysis D. Job sharing E. Career management

Q: Which of the following is classified as a consultation skill? A) Diagnosing issues B) Preparing reports C) Building trust D) Speaking in public

Q: Protean careers require that employees: A. look for organizations to provide job security. B. take responsibility to manage their own careers. C. be specialized at repetitive tasks. D. look for organizations for a career ladder to climb to higher positions. E. focus on holding on to their jobs to avoid being laid off.

Q: Which of the following is typically the last step in team building? A) On-the-job application and follow-up B) Problem-solving experience C) Data feedback and confrontation D) Identification of a problem

Q: Which of the following is true of protean careers? A. Employees look for organizations to provide job security. B. Employees take lesser responsibility for managing protean careers than for traditional careers. C. A protean career is one that does does not change frequently. D. Based on the psychological contract, employees look for organizations to provide development opportunities. E. Protean careers are characterized by frequent changes due to changes in the person's desired level of compensation.

Q: Carol is responsible for team building in her organization. She has identified a problem and has collected relevant data about it. Which of the following is most likely to be Carols next step toward team building? A) On-the-job application B) Data feedback and confrontation C) Problem-solving experience D) Follow-up after on-the-job application

Q: Which of the following is true of development? A. It focuses only on helping employees improve performance of their current jobs. B. The use of work experience is low in development. C. Participation in development is voluntary. D. It s not related to preparing employees for changes. E. It is linked to fixed business goals.

Q: Luke, a senior operations manager, is responsible for team building in his department. He has identified a problem. Which of the following is most likely to be Lukes next step toward team building? A) On-the-job application and follow-up B) Collection of relevant data C) Data feedback and confrontation D) Problem-solving experience

Q: Which of the following is true of the relationship between training and development? A. Training is future oriented, while development is focused on improvement of current job. B. The use of work experience is high in training, but low in development. C. Participation in training is voluntary, but compulsory in development. D. The goal of training is preparation for the current job, while the goal of development is preparation for changes in the current job. E. Training is often an ongoing process while development tends to be short-term process.

Q: Which of the following is typically the first stage in team building? A) Problem-solving experience B) Data feedback and confrontation C) Collection of relevant data D) Identification of a problem

Q: Research indicates that dysfunctional managerial behaviors, such as arrogance and insensitivity, can rarely be effectively dealt with in development programs.

Q: In a firefighting team, all members respond to a crisis collaboratively. Their mutual recognition of the emergency alerts them to the need for simultaneous action and coordinated response. Each knows what the others can do and trusts them to perform capably. Which of the following ingredients of effective teams is being illustrated in this scenario? A) Deferred judgment B) Groupthink C) Skills and role clarity D) Superordinate goals

Q: The development of high-potential employees is a slow process.

Q: Which of the following is an ingredient of effective teams? A) Changing composition B) Supportive environment C) Social loafing D) Deferred judgment

Q: Succession planning focuses on high-potential employees.

Q: Which of the following is a potential team problem? A) Deferred judgment B) Group cohesiveness C) Cognitive dissonance D) Social loafing

Q: Women and minorities often have trouble finding mentors.

Q: Which of the following is a cause of social loafing? A) Low achievement motivation B) High competence C) Drive for success D) Fair division of labor

Q: The outcome of action planning often takes the form of a career development plan.

Q: Sara is part of an experienced team that mainly handles complex tasks. The team executes its functional roles and accomplishes the tasks efficiently. According to the life cycle of a team, which of the following stages is being illustrated in this scenario? A) Performing B) Norming C) Forming D) Adjourning

Q: In goal setting, it is the employee's responsibility to identify the goal and the method of determining his/her progress toward that goal.

Q: Jake is a manager at TriColors Inc. He forms a team for a new research project. His team members work collaboratively and follow the established group norms. According to the life cycle of a team, which of the following is typically the next stage for Jakes team? A) Norming B) Forming C) Performing D) Adjourning

Q: In a self-assessment, the organization's responsibility is to identify opportunities and areas that need improvement.

Q: During the _____ stage, members compete for status, jockey for positions of relative control, and argue about appropriate directions for the group. A) storming B) norming C) performing D) forming

Q: Basic career management systems involve the four sequential steps of recruiting, relocation, reality check, and action planning.

Q: Which of the following is typically the next stage of team development after a team is formed? A) Adjourning B) Storming C) Norming D) Performing

Q: Coaches are peers or managers who work with other employees to motivate them, help them develop their skills, and provide them with reinforcement and feedback.

Q: Which of the following is typically the first stage in the life cycle of a team? A) Norming B) Forming C) Storming D) Performing

Q: Mentoring programs tend to be more successful when they are compulsory.

Q: Which of the following statements differentiates teams from groups? A) Unlike groups, the focus of activity for teams is on efficient task performance rather than problem solving. B) Teams have a dysfunctional and discouraged view of conflict, whereas groups have a functional and encouraged view of conflict. C) Unlike groups, teams exemplify a single rather than a shared approach to leadership. D) Teams are measured on the basis of their collective output, whereas groups are measured on the basis of their individual outputs.

Q: Employees on sabbatical generally do not receive their salary or benefits.

Q: Which of the following is a reason for the use of the matrix structure? A) Its teams focus on many projects. B) Its structure is more closed and rigid. C) It decreases employee autonomy. D) It can better handle complex changes.

Q: A _____ organization is an overlay of one type of organization on another so that two chains of command are directing individual employees. A) bureaucratic B) matrix C) divisional D) functional

Q: The temporary cross-functional move is the least common way to use downward moves for employee development.

Q: Which of the following is a disadvantage of classical organizational structures? A) It cannot support people. B) It provides minimum task support. C) It is weak in psychological support. D) It has less rigid tasks and roles.

Q: Job rotation increases employees' understanding of different company functions.

Q: Explain the concept of escalating commitment which is a possible weakness of a committee.

Q: An organization can use downward moves as a source of job experience.

Q: Explain the role of a devils advocate in reducing groupthink.

Q: Most employee development occurs through formal education programs.

Q: Explain the role of facilitators in a group meeting.

Q: A performance appraisal process must identify causes of the performance discrepancy and develop plans for improving performance.

Q: List the merits of the Delphi decision process.

Q: Research suggests that assessment center ratings are valid for predicting performance, salary level, and career advancement.

Q: List the four guidelines around which brainstorming is built. What are the limitations of brainstorming?

Q: Assessment centers are primarily used to identify employees' technical skills.

Q: Research on the validity, reliability, and effectiveness of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is inconclusive.

Q: What are the roles of a task leader?

Q: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, individuals with a Feeling (F) preference try always to be objective in making decisions, whereas individuals with a Thinking (T) preference are more subjective.

Q: How does a groups size tend to affect the way it works?