Q&A Hero

Q: In political races, interviewers attempt to persuade undecided voters. Explain why.

Q: State the golden rule and discuss how it applies to ethical persuasion.

Q: List three ethical considerations you should take into account when conducting persuasive interviews.

Q: Write an assumptive closing for a persuasive interview. You choose the topic and situation.

Q: A month before Christmas, you decide to persuade your employer to have a pre-Christmas sale rather than the traditional post-Christmas sale. Which motives or values might you incorporate into your persuasive interview?

Q: What should you do if an interviewee is uninterested?

Q: What is a "yes-but" method of persuasion, and when might you use it?

Q: List three things Isocrates found we must learn to practice beyond persuasion.

Q: If your university began using the phrase, You can get there from here, in their new billboard ads, this is known as aa. slogan.b. clich.c. euphemism.d tu quoque.

Q:

Q: Employees often perceive supervisors using a BARS model to be unsupportive and report high levels of anxiety. a. True b. False

Q: It is important to sign off on agreements if forms are being filled out as part of a performance review. a. True b. False

Q: When setting goals, there should be a focus on the past. a. True b. False

Q: Authorities agree that goal setting should constitute 50 percent of the performance interview. a. True b. False

Q: In the Universal Performance Interviewing Model, the stop list should be the shortest. a. True b. False

Q: Evaluate poor performance immediately before damage to the organization and the employee is irreparable. a. True b. False

Q: Base your review on the individual, not on the performance. a. True b. False

Q: More frequent communication between supervisors and employees results in less favorable job-related performance ratings. a. True b. False

Q: The pitchfork effect comes about when an interviewer gives ambivalent ratings to all facets of performance because of a particular trait the interviewer likes in others. a. True b. False

Q: It is not often how something is said but what is said that is important. a. True b. False

Q: Prior to the performance review, the interviewer should not consult the employees past record. a. True b. False

Q: Younger workers perform better than older workers a. True b. False

Q: Minorities are often watched more closely for infractions of rules. a. True b. False

Q: The employee assists in selecting his/her evaluators in the 360-degree approach. a. True b. False

Q: It is best to state your conclusions about an employee during the performance problem interview. a. True b. False

Q: Documentation is the major requirement when demonstrating a need for termination. a. True b. False

Q: Excessive praise may create anxiety. a. True b. False

Q: It is best to begin the performance review covering areas of excellence. a. True b. False

Q: According to the MBO model, state results in terms of absolutes rather than ranges in the performance review. a. True b. False

Q: All aspects of the employment process are covered by Civil Rights legislation. a. True b. False

Q: Which of the following is NOT a recommendation suggested when conducting a difficult interview that might cause anger and/or animosity? a. consider delaying a confrontation b. ignore the problem c. include a witness or union representative d. hold the interview in a private location

Q: Supervisors tend to be lenient with persons they perceive as a. likable. b. similar to themselves. c. possessing exceptional talent. d. all of the above

Q: Monroe, Borzi, and DiSalvo found that responses to performance problems resulted in all of the following except a. apparent compliance. b. relational leverage. c. improvement. d. avoidance.

Q: Fair and equitable treatment of each employee in a job class is called a. just cause. b. discipline. c. coaching. d. assessment.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a valuable outcome of the performance review for the employee? a. chance to get meaningful feedback b. opportunity to display strengths c. to be shy and self-effacing d. opportunity to display accomplishments

Q: Goal setting should comprise what percentage of the interview process? a. 25% b. 95% c. 75% d. 10%

Q: Which of the following types of raters of performance tend NOT to point out weak areas and dwell on average or better areas of performance? a. competitive b. tight c. loose d. none of the above

Q: The phenomenon where all facets of an employees ratings are negative due to the interviewers dislike of the employee or his/her traits is a. halo effect. b. pitchfork effect. c. recency error. d. central tendency.

Q: Using a panel approach to the performance review provides all of the following except a. higher judgment validation. b. better developmental action planning. c. more realistic promotion expectations. d. increased perception of favoritism.

Q: Which of the following is an approach to conducting the performance review interview? a. appraisal b. developmental c. both a and b d. none of the above

Q: Don Shula and Ken Blanchard developed a basic set of principles for improving employee performance. They form what acronym? a. CHANGE b. CHOICE c. COACH d. PLAYBOOK

Q: Each participant in the 360-degree approach comes to feedback sessions with a. behavior change input. b. coaching input. c. both a and b. d. pay recommendations.

Q: According to Cash, which of the following techniques are best to be used first when presenting a problem to an employee? a. correction b. hint c. suggestion d. none of the above

Q: The MBO model classifies work under all of the following except a. throughputs. b inputs. c. outputs. d. feedback.

Q: Those evaluated using the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS) Model report high levels of a. satisfaction. b. dissatisfaction. c. hostility. d. all of the above

Q: Performance review models establish which of the following? a. goals and expectations b. competencies c. performance d. all of the above

Q: The first step to prepare for the interviewer role in the performance review is a. read your organizations regulations and policies for reviewing employees. b. set up the appointment. c. meet the review candidate. d. none of the above

Q: Which of the following is NOT a result of an effective performance review system? a. compensation is more than salary b. achieve balance among all facets of the organization c. a high performance organization d. punish poor workers

Q: Which of the following guidelines are true for performance interviews? a. provide them on a regular basis b. provide them only when necessary c. avoid surprises during the interview d. both a and c

Q: Shula and Blanchard offered a basic set of principles for coaching including all of the following except a. over-learning b. audible ready c. comic relief d. honesty based

Q: A developmental perspective sees the performance interview as all of the following except a. required by the organization. b. subordinate conducted. c. bottom-up controlled. d. results based.

Q: Goodall, Wilson, and Waagen warn that communication between superiors and inferiors in the review process leads to a. ritual forms of address. b. organizational stereotypes. c. inappropriate etiquette. d. a defensive climate.

Q: The Universal Performance Interviewing Model a. is based on the belief that managerial competencies lead to effective behaviors that lead to effective performance. b. involves the manager and the subordinate in a mutual setting of results-oriented goals. c. centers on four basic questions dealing with what is not being done, expectations not being met, what the person could do, and does the person have the necessary skills. d. involves skills used on a specific job being identified through a job analysis, standards being set, and the aid of industrial engineers.

Q: Catalytic coaching is which of the following? a. future, rather than past centered b. places responsibility on the employee c. deals with salary d. all of the above

Q: When confronted with a serious performance problem, the interviewee should a. avoid suggesting ways to solve differences as quickly as possible. b. try to improve everything as quickly as possible. c. set priorities with both short- and long-range goals. d. tell the supervisor off to level the playing field.

Q: A halo effect occurs when a. an interviewer gives favorable ratings to all job duties when the interviewee excels in only one. b. interviewers give negative ratings to all facets of performance because of a particular trait they dislike in others. c. interviewers refrain from assigning extreme ratings to facets of performance. d. interviewers believe that no one can perform at the necessary standards.

Q: In Cashs Universal Performance Interviewing Model, the six basic words are a. right, wrong, stop, begin, never, caution. b. improvement, frustration, elimination, good, always, and now. c. start, stop, more, less, keep, now. d. failing, below average, average, satisfactory, above average, and excellent.

Q: Research suggests that the panel approach produces all of the following except a. higher validation of judgment. b. reduced perception of favoritism. c. less realistic promotion expectations. d. better developmental action planning.

Q: Discuss the four tests of just cause listed in your text.

Q: Discuss guidelines for setting goals during a performance review.

Q: Describe four of the ways Terry Lowe identifies to ruin a performance review.

Q: Describe the Management by Objectives (MBO) model for performance appraisal.

Q: Discuss the pros and cons of the appraisal process.

Q: List and explain the EEO laws that pertain to the review process.

Q: How can an interviewer maintain focus on the problem during disciplinary interviews?

Q: How can interviewers keep themselves under control during disciplinary interviews?

Q: Explain the differences between an appraisal perspective and a developmental perspective for performance reviews.

Q: If as an interviewee you are confronted with a serious problem during a performance interview, what would you do?

Q: Explain why the central tendency of an interviewer can ruin a performance review. 6 Explain catalytic coaching as part of the performance review process.

Q: How should an employee prepare for a performance interview?

Q: How can an interviewer develop a supportive climate for a performance interview?

Q: What are the fundamental principles of a universal performance model?

Q: How should interviewers open performance interviews?

Q: Looking at potential upcoming mergers is an example of an area to research about organizations. a. True b. False

Q: You should develop your resume before you start conducting research on your field. a. True b. False

Q: A factor to consider in your self analysis is your tolerance for risk in stock plans. a. True b. False

Q: Some interviews are done via video conference. a. True b. False

Q: Some authorities recommend that an applicant should arrive a few minutes late to an interview. a. True b. False

Q: A recent study indicated that half of all speech acts in interviews are declarative statements rather than questions and answers. a. True b. False

Q: In percentage agencies, the employer pays a fee to find them applicants. a. True b. False