Q&A Hero

Q: The best description of emotional contagion is ________. A) Spreading positive emotions to others B) Spreading negative emotions to others C) Spreading positive or negative emotions to others D) Impossible to measure because it's not readily displayed

Q: Which of the following is not true of emotional intelligence (EQ)? A) EQ remains consistent throughout one's lifetime B) High EQ can predict high performance C) EQ can be measured D) Individuals have different levels of EQ

Q: Which job requires the highest level of emotional labor? A) Certified financial accountant B) Customer service representative C) Financial analyst D) Maintenance worker

Q: A manager in charge of hiring a new accountant should refer to which competency model to determine the skills needed by applicants to perform the job? A) Organization-wide B) Function-based C) Role-based D) Job-based

Q: How do most organizations help employees develop competencies? A) Encouraging employees to develop their competencies B) Providing training or guided experiences C) Hiring an outside firm to assess employees' work performance D) Only hire employees that already have all the competencies needed for their position, thus completely eliminating the need for employee competency development

Q: Which model would identify the groups of competencies needed for high performance by the employees at a sales firm? A) Organization-wide competency model B) Function-based competency model C) Role-based competency model D) Job-based competency model

Q: Which of the following statements about competencies is true? A) Employees should independently seek out ways to continually develop their competencies and not rely on the organization to provide the developmental opportunities B) Employers are responsible for providing developmental opportunities, but only for competencies you did not have when you were hired C) Most employers will pay for any fees for courses or activities to develop your competencies if you are in a managerial position D) Once you reach your desired job or position, your employer won't expect you to continue developing your competencies because you are not seeking further advancement

Q: A common theme required for the various methods you can use to develop your own personal competencies is that they are ________. A) Guided by a mentor B) Self-initiated activities done outside of the workplace C) Specific to your industry D) Recommended to you by someone in your organization

Q: When are employers concerned with measuring competencies? A) Before employees are hired B) After employees are hired C) Both A and B D) None of the above

Q: Which of the following competencies is a skill? A) Conscientiousness B) Work history C) Excel proficiency D) Agreeableness

Q: The most sought after competency by employers is ________. A) Ethics/social responsibility B) Leadership C) Critical thinking/problem solving D) Teamwork/collaboration

Q: Contemporary organizations must change and adapt continually to function effectively in an environment filled with dynamic change. As a result, all of the following aspects are continually shifting except ________. A) How to analyze and apply market trends to develop products or services B) How work is accomplished C) How people view the nature of work D) How to improve work

Q: Which of the following approaches would be used by a manager who takes time to determine what each specific problem involves before creating a plan to address the issue? A) The situational approach B) The technical approach C) The universal approach D) The industrial approach

Q: The manager of a hotel chain believes that every check-in interaction with a guest should be consistent so that the guest will receive the same high-quality, courteous and professional experience regardless of location. This manager believes in which of the following approaches? A) The equivalent approach B) The universal approach C) The situational approach D) The interactive approach

Q: A retail store manager wants to survey each employee to find what they value most so that she can provide incentives each employee desires. The survey uses open ended questions to assess what employees would find motivating and what would help to increase their satisfaction at work. What type of research is this store manager conducting? A) Interdisciplinary B) Quantitative C) Audit D) Qualitative

Q: The Academy of Management established a division of organizational behavior in 1971. The division provided a forum for research and discussion about important outcomes in organizational behavior among researchers from many diverse fields, not just management. What type of contemporary organization best describes the Academy of Management? A) Community of practice B) Network C) Professional D) Since the division was established in 1971, it is not classified as a contemporary organization

Q: A bakery is evaluating several new product ideas. They conducted focus groups and conducted individual participant interviews. What is the bakery's approach to researching their new products? A) Interview method B) Group evaluation method C) Qualitative method D) Quantitative method

Q: How can you personally benefit from the study of organizational behavior? Describe five ways that studying organizational behavior benefits you.

Q: As a student, you may find the ________ approach to learning easier because you are asked to relate and apply the concepts to your personal and workplace experiences. A) Practice-based B) Experience-based C) Interpretive-based D) Performance-based

Q: As a result of the ________ approach to learning, you will be able to understand the relationships and interactions among different concepts and articulate how concepts function in the organizational setting. A) Experience-based B) Performance-based C) Interpretive-based D) Practice-based

Q: The objective of ________ learning is to recall and demonstrate basic knowledge, concepts, terms, and theories associated with organizations. A) Practice-based B) Interpretive-based C) Experience-based D) Performance-based

Q: You can personally use concepts from organizational behavior to improve all of the following except ________. A) Computer skills B) Develop yourself as a leader C) Identify ways to motivate others D) Learn skills that employers find important for the contemporary workplace

Q: The ________ approach to learning prepares you to understand how to handle situations you encounter in the workplace. A) Performance-based B) Practice-based C) Interpretive-based D) Experience-based

Q: You can apply your knowledge of organizational behavior when you are ________. A) A CEO B) A manager C) A front line employee D) All of the above

Q: A community of practice type of contemporary organization displays which of the following characteristics? A) Shared effort to accomplish a goal B) Focus on doing social good C) Interaction about the same topic D) Shared leadership

Q: Which of the following is a positive organizational outcome? A) Low turnover intention B) Counterproductive work behavior C) Incivility D) Sabotage

Q: One aspect that is present in all organizations is ________. A) Working toward achieving a goal B) People interacting with each other C) An organizational structure D) Shared responsibility

Q: Contemporary organizations can be found in any industry and are constantly adapting to new challenges but they all share some similarities. All of the following are common characteristics of contemporary organizations except ________. A) Measuring and using data to guide decision making B) Needing individual and team performance C) Diminished value on long-term relationships with employees D) All of the above are characteristics of contemporary organizations

Q: If we were interested in studying an organization from a financial perspective, which of the following would we analyze? A) Supply and demand B) Company stock C) Cash flow D) External market influences

Q: Which of the following is not one of the three levels of organizational behavior? A) Individual B) Interpersonal C) Organizational D) Group or team

Q: Which of the following organizational processes would describe the pattern of interactions among individuals that includes groups and teams, negotiation, and communication and diversity? A) Individual processes B) Interpersonal processes C) Organizational processes D) Group or team processes

Q: Which of the following is not one of the four organizational processes? A) Individual B) Interpersonal C) Organizational D) Corporate

Q: Which of the following behaviors does organizational behavior seek to understand, solve, or prevent? A) Absenteeism B) Effectiveness C) Job satisfaction D) Organizational citizenship behaviors

Q: Organizational behavior can be described as a(n) ________ discipline because the field of study is directed toward how to change and improve organizations and the people in them rather than solely focusing on theoretical issues. A) Positive B) Interdisciplinary C) Applied D) Qualitative

Q: We are interested in improving the functioning of organizations because of the positive impact on employees' ________. A) Physical and mental well-being B) Productivity C) Creativity D) All of the above

Q: The focus of organizational behavior is on ________. A) Productivity B) People in organizations C) Leading and leadership processes D) Efficiency

Q: 2) Can the factors of psychology and culture be drivers of change or work to constrain change? A) These factors drive change. If you are trying to change a process and your employees are open to the idea and willing to change, it will be far easier to make and retain the change B) These are the factors that constrain change. People don't always want to change; we are creatures of habit C) These two factors can act as both drivers and constraints in the change process D) Normally they constrain change but they can drive change. It is situationally dependent

Q: 3) Strategic changes in organizations can fail for all of the following reasons except ________. A) Employees don't have the skills or ability to perform after the change B) Employees try to change on their own C) Employees may not believe in the change or where the company is headed D) Employees can't tolerate the uncertainty and stress when anticipating and during a change

Q: 4) Which best describes incremental change? A) Changing the organization's culture to respond to internal forces such as poor morale among employees B) This type of change prompts a company to reinvent themselves because the changes are so extensive and gradual they don't resemble the company they were before the change C) Gradual changes over time such as an organization increasing their online presence and decreasing their brick and mortar presence D) This type of change is more resistant to social and cultural factors

Q: 5) Can organizations change more than one thing at a time? A) Yes; internally and externally driven forces dictate that changes have to occur, not wait in a queue B) No; the models can't work together or employees will get confused C) Yes; they can only work on changes following one model at a time D) No; managing one change is hard enough. More than one change would place undue stress on an already taxed management team

Q: 6) You have probably used a process similar to the force field model in your personal life. How might you have done this? A) To change your beliefs or culture to fit in with a group B) When you make a list of pros and cons to help you decide C) Every time you decide on a certain course of action D) When you are making complex decisions

Q: 7) When implementing Lewin's three-step model, when do you tell employees the purpose and goal of the change? A) Step 1 B) Step 2 C) Step 3 D) Step 4

Q: 8) What is the step that some observers add to Lewin's three-step model? A) Diagnosing change barriers at the individual and organizational level B) Evaluating how well the change worked C) Ensuring that the change continues D) Evaluate and go back to step 1 if the change didn't work the first time

Q: 9) If you were to use Lewin's three-step model amended with an additional step, where does the fourth step go in the original model? A) Before the first step B) Before the second step C) Before the third step D) After the third step

Q: 10) What is the difference between Lewin's models and Kotter's model? A) Kotter looked at strategic change and Lewin looked at change in general B) Lewin focused on psychological and cultural aspects of change and Kotter focused on applying managed change in organizations C) Lewin proposed models that are easy for untrained managers to follow unlike Kotter's more complex model D) Kotter's model results in strategy but Lewin's models don't

Q: 11) Which of these would not be found in Lewin's third step? A) Analyze driving and constraining forces B) Hire new employees with the values/skills/abilities needed in the changed environment C) Use positive reinforcement and feedback for employees demonstrating changed behavior D) New routines become habit and changes are normalized

Q: 12) Kotter's first step is "sense of urgency." What happens in this step? A) Management communicates the rapid change needed and what is driving it B) Tell employees why the change is necessary so they embrace the change and begin reaping said benefits C) You should establish this sense of excitement and rush so that you can proceed through the stage changes quickly D) Managers or decision makers need to quickly decide what the plan is so they can communicate it to their employees

Q: 13) The second step in Kotter's model is to build a guiding coalition. What is a guiding coalition? A) Top management team (TMT) who oversee the change and have helped to establish the vision and changes the company should make B) Task force composed of management and change consultants who monitor the change process and put it back on track if something goes awry C) Team of employees from any level who act as change advocates. They spread support for the change among their various areas or departments D) Extra-organizational members with insights on the particular change the organization wants to do. They help the organization's managers follow through with the rest of the plan

Q: 14) How is appreciative inquiry distinct from other methods of change? A) Appreciative inquiry builds on positive aspects instead of trying to change or improve problem areas B) Appreciative inquiry is based on positive reinforcement instead of forcing change C) Appreciative inquiry is driven by employees in a grassroots method instead of the top down approach used by the other methods D) Appreciative inquiry is the most recent approach to change and comes out of the positive psychology line of behavioral research

Q: 15) What drives appreciative inquiry? A) Self-fulfillment B) Internal forces C) External forces D) Creative process improvements

Q: 16) What is disrupted in disruptive innovation? A) The status quo B) The innovative process C) Consumer acceptance D) Introduction to consumers

Q: 17) Which factors make up creativity? A) Creativity and innovation B) Trial and error C) Innovation and diffusion of innovation D) Individual and work related

Q: 18) A new cashier has stood out since day one with her unique method of scanning and bagging that is faster than all of the other cashiers. Management recognizes the potential cost savings to this approach and are considering a widespread transition to her technique. This new scanning method is ________ and if the implementation is completed, the technique will be considered ________. A) Efficient; influential B) Innovative; a diffusion of innovation C) Creative; a disruptive innovation D) Creative; innovative

Q: 19) ________ always requires ________ but creativity doesn't always result in innovation. A) Creativity; innovation B) Creativity; workplace expertise C) Innovation; diffusion of innovation D) Innovation; creativity

Q: 20) Which best describes the relationship between creativity and innovation? A) Creativity is the idea and innovation is the result B) Creativity comes from individuals and innovations are made by groups C) Creativity is the first step in the innovation process D) Creativity becomes innovation when the creative idea or product is adopted by the organization or marketplace

Q: 21) If you want to promote creativity, you should do everything except ________. A) Lessen the emphasis on successful outcomes B) Decrease time for projects C) Reinforce the process and effort instead of the outcome D) Increase individual autonomy

Q: 23) Which of the following is not a way to reduce stress for your subordinates? 22) Stress originates from an individual's ________. This is part of the reason we experience stress differently. A) Perceptions B) Ability to cope C) Support network D) Complexity of job

Q: 23) Which of the following is not a way to reduce stress for your subordinates? A) Convert hindrance stress to challenge stress B) Provide positive feedback consistently instead of just for outcomes C) Get to know them on a personal level D) Recognize when they are stressed or struggling and help with that issue, such as extending a deadline

Q: 26) What kind of change must organizations engage in if the federal government were to raise the minimum wage? A) Unplanned change B) Internal changes in outcomes C) Incremental change D) Externally driven change

Q: 27) Provide an example that applies the steps of appreciative inquiry to yourself. First, explain what you seek to change and provide your rationale. For each of the four steps, explain what you will do and why.

Q: Patients are ordinarily compliant to physicians instructions. a. True b. False

Q: Most health care workers are task oriented. a. True b. False

Q: Telephone calls account for 75% of health care interviews. a. True b. False

Q: It is good to employ routine openings in the health care interview. a. True b. False

Q: The physiciannot the patientmust articulate reasons for making or not making a change. a. True b. False

Q: Compliance is particularly low when instructions to patients are preventative in nature. a. True b. False

Q: Humor is inappropriate when a patients health, perhaps even life, is at stake. a. True b. False

Q: Experts claim that most malpractice cases were due to poor communication. a. True b. False

Q: Doctors should set the pace of the health care interview. a. True b. False

Q: Patients seen as lower class tend to get more optimistic diagnoses and prognoses than do those of the upper class. a. True b. False

Q: The success of the interview may be due to the number of words the provider does not say. a. True b. False

Q: Health care providers should encourage storytelling. a. True b False

Q: Your book recommends that health care providers use the inverted funnel sequence. a. True b. False

Q: One study found that 20% of patients did not know the meaning of common medical terms. a. True b. False

Q: It is essential to use which type of probe as an initial closing device in the health care interview? a. nudging b. clearinghouse c. silent d. restatement

Q: All of the following are blocking tactics to avoid in counseling or persuading in the health care interview except a. making jokes. b. asking questions. c. ignoring the patient. d. leaving the room.

Q: Ley found that patients given seven or more items to remember within a few hours after the health care interview had what level of recall? a. 82% b. 12% c. 36% d. 3%

Q: Which of the following type patient tends to be provided more information? a. older b. female c. educated d. all of the above

Q: Tag questions are used to a. elicit information. b. confirm information. c. summarize. d. all of the above

Q: Which of the following technique is NOT listed as a way to improve information getting? a. pauses b. nodding the head c. interrupting d. eye contact