Q&A Hero

Q: Targeted messages are particularly important when trying to communicate to a ________. A) Coworker from a different generation B) Struggling subordinate C) Large and diverse group D) Teammate with poor information literacy

Q: What is the first step in the process of developing a targeted message? A) Establish what the purpose of your message will be B) Determine who you will deliver your message to C) Determine how you will deliver your message (e.g. asynchronous, memo, live speech, interactive presentation, hands on demonstration, etc.) D) Choose questions to answer in your message

Q: Differences in communication can be present in all of the following situations except ________. A) Selection interview B) Work within a cohesive group C) Performance appraisal D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following best describes big data? A) Proliferation of data in daily life B) A database of quantitative information C) Complex problem solving in real world settings D) Expanding number of data sources readily available

Q: Which of the following is not a model of communication one can use in organizations? A) Co-orienting B) Sender-receiver C) Conversational learning D) Parochialism

Q: Why is effective communication an essential process for organizations? A) It is central to many organizational functions B) Necessary to communicate with stakeholders C) Necessary to communicate vision and direction D) Critical for industry leader to stay on top

Q: What communication problem does conversational learning help resolve? A) Different communication styles B) Parochialism C) Information illiteracy D) Lack of co-orientation

Q: Communication style has been defined as a culturally learned set of signals to communicate meaning to other people. Which of the following regarding communication style is true? A) Communication style is static for each culture B) Management and front line employees have different communication styles because they are from different cultures C) Communication style is dynamic in each culture D) The words are different between cultures, but the signals are the same

Q: All of the following are communication style preferences of men except ________. A) Make statements instead of ask questions B) Use "I" instead of "we" C) Offer criticism instead of compliments D) Avoid talking about personal achievements instead of focus on achievements

Q: Which generation prefers to receive ample praise and feedback, are good collaborators, and focus on achieving their individual goals? A) Generation X B) Millennials C) Baby Boomers D) Generation Z

Q: When might understanding generational differences in the workplace be useful? A) Understanding others' perspectives B) Deciding how and when to provide motivation and feedback C) Forming teams or workgroups D) All of the above

Q: Which issue in communication is likely to appear between Millennial employees and those in the Gen X and Baby Boomer generations? A) Forms of communication B) Formality of communication C) Frequency of communication D) Content of communication

Q: The preferred method of communication differs between generations. Which generation favors face-to-face communication? A) Generation Y B) Generation X C) Millennials D) All of the above

Q: What factor creates differences between generations? A) Work experiences B) Type of education C) Technological dependence D) Environmental forces

Q: Which of the following characteristics is an example of role diversity? A) Personality B) Motivation C) Organizational position D) Cognitive processing style

Q: Learning style, personality, and cognitive processes are examples of which type of diversity? A) Demographics B) Organization-based C) Traits and characteristics D) Beliefs and values

Q: What is one way that an organization's diversity efforts can promote fairness? A) Employees in traditionally underrepresented groups gain access to positions of power B) Employees in diverse groups are able to communicate better C) Employees in traditionally underrepresented groups receive compensation packages similar to other employees D) Employees' job expectations are equalized across different groups

Q: Which of the following outcomes should organizations not expect after implementing a plan to value their employees' backgrounds, perspectives, and experiences? A) Organizations will be better able to respond to dynamic change because the organization increases its ability to adapt B) Organizations can consider a wider range of perspectives when making decisions C) The shareholders' value will improve D) Organizations can promote a culture of fairness

Q: Organizations value the diversity of individuals in which key areas? A) Experience, background, perspective B) Training, critical thinking, background C) Contribution, perspective, work ethic D) Integrity, skills, perspective

Q: Evidence shows that diverse work groups make better decisions when group members hold three feelings or beliefs. Which of the following is not one of these beliefs? A) Group members feel they are valued and respected B) Group members feel they have a good role diversity C) Group members share a viewpoint that their work is significant D) Group members hold strong interpersonal relationships

Q: How are diversity and communication related? A) Diversity of experience must be maximized for effective communication B) Communication about diversity should be minimized C) Communication is easier when the target is very diverse D) Effective communication requires understanding how individual diversity is associated with the communication process

Q: All of the following are elements that negotiators should clarify and understand prior to beginning the negotiation except ________. A) Positions B) Issues C) Timing D) Interests

Q: Amber has always been averse to conflict and tries to avoid becoming involved at all costs both at work and in her personal life. When friends or coworkers try to pull her into a conflict, she resists and withdrawals from the situation. She has considered whether this is the best conflict management strategy and she concluded that it has worked for her thus far and that if she continues to avoid conflicts, she can stay out of them and she won't have to deal with them. Examine Amber's conflict management strategy and justify your conclusion.

Q: Which of the following statements about cognitive framing is true? A) Individuals have unique cognitive frames B) Individuals working in the same department will have similar cognitive frames C) Individuals with good working relationships will have similar cognitive frames D) Individuals working on different teams but in the same department will have similar cognitive frames

Q: Before you attempt to use any interpersonal influence technique at work or in your personal life, you should ________. A) Take a conflict management course B) Have training in counseling or related field C) Always involve a neutral third party D) None of the above

Q: The best conflict style is ________. A) Competing B) Compromising C) Accommodating D) None of the above

Q: The avoiding conflict style ________. A) Should never be used because nothing will get done B) Should rarely be used because it results in no action C) Can be effective in certain situations D) Should always be used if the goal is to increase cooperation

Q: A retail location's employees are suffering from poor morale and low motivation. The store manager knows that many changes must be made and the changes will likely be met with resistance from employees who are disengaged and not committed to their jobs. What conflict management style would best help the store manager make the changes necessary to improve the morale and engagement of the store's employees? A) Avoiding B) Competing C) Accommodating D) Collaborating

Q: A graduate in his first professional job is attempting to climb the ladder quickly without consideration for others' perspectives or feelings. He won't tolerate anyone getting in his way. Based on this employee's attitude, what type of conflict style will he likely use in the workplace? A) Competing B) Collaborating C) Compromising D) Accommodating

Q: Process conflict by definition affects the work process and results negatively. Does that mean that this type of conflict should be limited as much as possible in organizations? Explain and justify your answer.

Q: In the conflict process, does "Stage 2: Awareness" occur simultaneously for both involved parties? Explain and justify your answer.

Q: With less than two weeks to go until a critical sales presentation, progress on a very important project has ground to a halt because the group can't decide which software to use. Two people have strong preferences to use different kinds of software. The other three people in the group just want to pick one and move on. What type of conflict is happening? A) Process B) Task C) Latent D) Interpersonal

Q: The number of organizations using a team structure is increasing and more individuals are working in close proximity and working together on various projects. Given this new organizational structure, which type of conflict is likely to increase compared to the individual work structure of the past? A) Process conflict B) Task conflict C) Interpersonal conflict D) None of the above

Q: Organizations experience ________ conflict. A) No B) Functional C) Dysfunctional D) Functional and dysfunctional

Q: All conflict should be approached with the ultimate goal of ________. A) Eliminating conflict from the workplace completely B) Reducing interpersonal conflict but encouraging task conflict C) Only having conflict that ends well D) Creating functional conflict while minimizing dysfunctional conflict

Q: Negotiation is ________ to resolve conflicts. A) The worst way B) The best way C) One way D) The relationship-oriented way

Q: Brian is engaging in negotiations with the other department managers for resource allocations for the next fiscal year. Brian is very confident that he will get exactly what he needs for his department in this negotiation, but his boss thought he was overestimating his probability of success. Which of the below situations most likely happened? A) Brian will get less than what he was negotiating for B) Brian will get what he was negotiating for C) Brian will get more than what he was negotiating for D) Brian is more likely to enter an interpersonal conflict over values with the other managers

Q: Employees are advised to use the subordinate negotiation strategy because it focuses on building the relationship between themselves and their supervisor. A) True, employees should defer to the experience and decisions of the supervisor, so entering negotiations with the goal of preserving that relationship is a great idea for advancing in the company B) False, they should use the competitive strategy that focuses only on the issues at hand and doesn't consider the relationship between the employer and employee C) False, they should use the avoidance strategy so they can focus on their own work and leave the negotiations and decision making to their supervisor D) False, a collaborative strategy would be the better choice because the issue and relationship are both considered during the negotiation process

Q: Organizations should actively manage conflict at which level(s)? A) Individual B) Group C) Organizational D) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is not a predetermined factor in negotiations? A) Issues involved B) People involved C) Surrounding environment D) Strategy choice

Q: Every one of the situational factors involved in any conflict should be examined prior to entering the negotiation process. Why is this statement incorrect? A) Other factors are more important than situational factors, so those should be examined in their entirety B) All of the information needed may not be identified or available C) You only need to examine the critical factors D) The original statement is correct

Q: Which type of conflict do mediators work to resolve? A) Interpersonal B) Process C) Very few conflicts with specific issues identified D) A broad range of conflicts

Q: What is the preferred medium of communication for negotiations? A) Online chat B) Text C) Face-to-face D) Email

Q: What have some researchers argued could make all negotiation strategies more effective? A) Increase the perceived power base of the negotiator B) Focus only on the content or substantive outcomes C) Focus only on relationship outcomes D) Conduct negotiations on neutral ground

Q: Which type of negotiation views resources involved in the negotiation as flexible instead of fixed? A) Distributive negotiation B) Integrative negotiation C) Process negotiation D) Expansion negotiation

Q: Removing the absolute need to resolve the focal conflict improves the negotiation ability for that party. This is known as the ________. A) Prepared negotiation strategy B) Best alternative to a negotiated agreement C) Strategic planning D) Outcome identification

Q: A graphic art firm that designs billboards assigns one team to work on each client contract. What type of team does this firm use? A) Management B) Project C) Implementation D) Production

Q: History has numerous examples of groupthink occurring with catastrophic consequences. What was the common factor to be found missing in many major disasters involving groupthink such as the Shuttle Challenger explosion? A) Peer pressure B) Polarization C) Brainstorming D) Critical thinking

Q: A group that embraces the individual diversity of its members and encourages each member to contribute their own ideas is least likely to experience which effect? A) Peer pressure effect B) Polarization effect C) Common-knowledge effect D) Groupthink effect

Q: Why do the social loafing and free rider effect say that the same individual will do less work in a group than on their own? A) The more talented people in the group don't want them to drag them down so they push them aside B) There is no one else to take responsibility or be held accountable for your work when you are working on your own C) Everyone does less work in a group than on their own because there are more people to distribute the tasks D) Peer pressure doesn't exclude them when they are working individually

Q: Because of their structure and the lack of regular meetings, ________ becomes even more important for virtual teams than for more traditionally structured teams. A) Face-to-face meetings B) Frequent virtual communications C) Extraversion D) Psychological safety

Q: You strongly disagree with the course of action your group has decided on but when you speak up in the first meeting, you are hushed. Your group never explores alternate plans or attempts to identify flaws in the plan they have chosen. After being hushed, you don't feel that you can express your dissent, and even if you do, it won't matter because you're sure you won't be heard. The group seems to be suffering from ________. A) The fallacy of principle belief B) Poor communication C) Groupthink D) Primary choice favoritism

Q: Which effect predicts that you will make riskier or more conservative decisions in a group than you will on your own? A) Polarization B) Peer pressure C) Groupthink D) Majority rules

Q: Which decision making process is structured to work best for employees working remotely? A) Virtual decision making B) Delphi technique C) Brainstorming asynchronously D) Nominal group technique

Q: According to the punctuated equilibrium model, in which step/phase is group productivity the highest? A) Norming B) Adjourning C) Phase 1 D) Phase 2

Q: Which of the following does Tuckman's five-stage model explain particularly well? A) Explain how psychological norms develop in a group B) Explain how behavior changes over time spent working together C) Predict behaviors and contributions of group members at different points in the project D) Explains how group members influence one another over time

Q: Which of the following is a major criticism of Tuckman's five-stage model of group development? A) It only explains the psychological factors that impact group development B) It doesn't describe how psychological norms develop in groups C) Group development doesn't conform to a specified timeline D) Groups may get stuck at the Storming stage

Q: According to Tuckman's model, what changes at each level of group development? A) Feelings of interconnectedness B) Group norms C) Group satisfaction D) Leader workload

Q: If a team lead wants their group members to share ideas more freely and share in a sense that their teammates will follow through with their commitments, which interpersonal or maintenance norm should they develop within the team? A) Task B) Accountability C) Creativity D) Trust

Q: Individuals change their behavior to conform to group norms because norms serve an important ________ and ________ function. A) Group; social B) Psychological; social C) Interactive; influential D) Physiological; belonging

Q: The ability to function as a team member is a competency that is ________. A) Innate B) Natural C) Learned D) Emergent

Q: Which of the following is not an organizational source of support for groups? A) Diversity B) Coaching C) Rewards or recognition D) Increasing autonomy

Q: What kind of group is composed of members who differ on gender, education level, functional specialty, and age? A) Analogous B) Heterogeneous C) Homologous D) Homogenous

Q: What are the three major types of coaching? A) Initial, ongoing, turnover B) Process, behavioral, developmental C) Storming, norming, performing D) Positive, neutral, negative

Q: In what way are production teams and service teams similar? A) They both focus on improving ongoing aspects of the business B) They both focus on improving aspects of employee interactions C) They both focus on meeting short-term goals of the business D) The names can be used interchangeably

Q: Firefighters have to work together using their highly specialized skills to respond to each unique emergency situation effectively. Firefighters are an example of what type of team? A) Project B) Action and performance C) Short-term D) Parallel

Q: A demolition crew's job is to bring down old buildings. The employees work together in a coordinated effort to clear the site of the building within the time specified in their contract. This demolition crew is an example of what type of team? A) Executive B) Deconstruction C) Project D) Production

Q: What are two external factors associated with success in groups? A) Production and action B) Coaching and support C) Training and leadership D) Effective communication and good interpersonal dynamics

Q: Which of the following is not a factor that relates to group effectiveness? A) Purpose and type B) Context and composition C) Internal factors D) Experience and leadership

Q: Which of the following statements about groups and teams is correct? A) A team is always a group but a group isn't always a team B) A group operates independently but a team almost always operates in the larger organizational context C) A team will have an assigned leader but a group will have an emergent leader D) A group's function is social while a team's function is work

Q: Groups and teams differ primarily on which factor? A) Shared responsibility for goals B) Basic unit of coordinating work in organizations C) Accomplish tasks that can't be effectively performed by an individual D) Operate within organizations

Q: The last recommendation for improving naturalistic decision making is "decision makers should put less emphasis on organizational decision making structures and more emphasis on training decision makers who have expertise to look at a situation in its entirety." What should organizations do to implement this suggestion?

Q: As HR manager, you have received e-mails from nearly every member of a team asking for transfers off the team or demanding one (or more) teammates be terminated. You weren't aware of any issue with this team before, and you don't have a clear idea of what's going on, but this is clearly an issue you have to address. What type of decision making should you use? A) Behavioral economic-based decision making B) Rational decision making C) Naturalistic decision making D) Organizational psychology-based decision making

Q: Which decision making approach should you use if you need to make a decision using last quarter's sales data? A) Behavioral economics B) Organizational psychology C) Rational model D) All of the above

Q: Which model uses one's emotions, intuition, and past experiences when deciding the best course of action? A) Rational B) Naturalistic C) Organizational psychology D) Behavioral economics

Q: What is meant by recommending that decision makers should focus on resilience? A) Emotionally rebounding from poor decisions quickly B) Learning from your mistakes so you don't make them again C) Identify areas that may be problematic as you apply your solution and develop plans to address each before you begin D) Prepare a plan B before you begin

Q: Which improvement has been suggested when addressing complex problems in naturalistic decision making? A) Base your decision on factors you feel are most important B) Focus on the context of the problem C) Utilize others as a sounding board for your ideas D) Don't eliminate variables to simplify the problem

Q: How can consequences improve your decision making? A) Reflect on negative consequences so you don't repeat your mistakes B) Glean as much learning as you can from other people's consequences so you don't have to be the one who learns the hard way C) Focus on how you can prevent failure to identify and address areas that could lead to these negative consequences D) Reflect on the negative consequences to remember what could be at stake and keep you focused

Q: Understanding that decisions don't always work is evidenced by the ________ failure rate of decisions. A) 20% B) 35% C) 40% D) 50%

Q: You have to make a decision quickly and as best you can. What model best describes your process? A) Naturalistic B) Rational C) Behavioral economics D) Garbage can