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Home » Human Resource » Page 536

Human Resource

Q: (p. 352) The sequence of forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning apply to the development of all teams.

Q: (p. 351) In the storming stage of team development, feelings of solidarity develop as members work toward team goals.

Q: Contrast the rational and the normative models of decision making. What are the assumptions of each?

Q: (p. 349) A football team is an example of an action team.

Q: To increase creativity in an organization, it is important to develop a _____. A. peer environment B. bureaucracy culture C. crisis D. time pressure E. transactional leadership style

Q: (p. 349) Management teams are formed to take on "one-time" tasks that are generally complex.

Q: Associations generated in the incubation stage come to life in the _____ stage. A. incubation B. illumination C. concentration D. verification E. preparation

Q: (p. 348) Work teams are designed to be relatively permanent.

Q: During the _____ stage of the creative process, people engage in daily activities while their minds simultaneously mull over information and make remote associations. A. incubation B. illumination C. concentration D. verification E. preparation

Q: Creative ideas at work are often triggered by work-related problems, incongruities, or failures. Which of the following stages focuses on the problem on hand? A. Incubation B. Illumination C. Concentration D. Verification E. Preparation

Q: (p. 346) A team consists of two or more people who work independently over some time period to accomplish common goals related to some task-oriented purpose.

Q: The first stage of the creative process is _____. A. divergent thinking B. preparation C. experimentation D. insight E. intuition

Q: Which of the following is true about creativity? A. People are more creative under a crisis or severe time pressure. B. Organizations with an adhocracy culture tend to be less innovative. C. Creativity is highest when workers are under moderate stress. D. Creativity is affected by personality traits and not by intellectual ability. E. Any novel solution can be considered to be a creative solution.

Q: Winnie has been selected for a choice overseas assignment because she senses the cultural differences between people and plans her interactions accordingly, can adapt her behavior when situations differ from those she is used to in her home country, and she is willing to put forth the effort to understand people from other cultures. Winnie has a high level of _____. __ cultural intelligence __ global intelligence __ interpersonal intelligence __ self-regulation __ self-monitoring .

Q: Which of the following environmental factors can have an effect on cognitive ability? (Check all that apply.) __ Neglect and abuse __ Amount of education __ Choice of occupation __ Small friendship circle __ Presence of pollen in the workplace There are several environmental factors that can affect cognitive ability including neglect, abuse, and deprivation as a child, quantity of schooling, choice of occupation, and exposure to malnutrition, toxins, and fetal alcohol syndrom as children.

Q: Which of the following is true about creative people? A. They are not adaptors. B. They are geniuses and introverted nerds. C. They are usually satisfied with the status quo. D. They do not have the willingness to overcome obstacles. E. Male and female managers differ in levels of creativity.

Q: (p. 330, 332) Describe the Wonderlic Personnel Test.

Q: Chauffer driven and group driven systems are used in _____. A. brainstorming B. computer-aided decision making C. nominal group technique D. face-to-face interactions E. scenario-building

Q: (p. 328-329) Explain the effects of general cognitive ability on performance and commitment.

Q: The _____ technique is a group process that anonymously generates ideas or judgments from physically dispersed experts. A. brainstorming B. aided-analytic C. nominal group D. Delphi E. satisficing

Q: (p. 327) Describe the role of sensory ability in task performance.

Q: The _____ technique reduces the roadblocks to group decision making by separating idea generation from evaluation, promoting balanced participation among members, and incorporating mathematical voting techniques in order to reach consensus. A. brainstorming B. satisficing C. nominal group D. Delphi E. scenario-building

Q: The _____ technique is used to help groups generate multiple ideas and alternatives for solving problems, to increase creativity using silent idea generation. A. satisficing B. aided-analysis C. nominal group D. Delphi E. brainstorming

Q: (p. 324) Differentiate between the three types of strength. Explain what types of jobs may require these strengths.

Q: Which of the following is true about consensus?A. Consensus requires unanimous agreements.B. Groups do not experience roadblocks when trying to arrive at a consensus decision.C. Voting is not encouraged because it can split the group into winners and losers.D. Consensus implies that groups do not need to satisfice.E. Groups always generate relevant alternatives to a problem.

Q: (p. 324) Adena is a national level ballet dancer. Physical fitness and innovating new sequences are very crucial for her career. Write a note on the physical abilities you consider relevant in her profession.

Q: Which of the following is true about group decision making? A. Groups are more efficient than individuals. B. The composition of a group affects its decision making processes and ultimately performance. C. Groups make extreme decisions. D. Groups were less confident about their judgments than individuals. E. Group confidence is a surrogate for group decision quality.

Q: (p. 319-321) Define emotional abilities. Identify and describe the four abilities related to emotional intelligence.

Q: (p. 316) Identify and describe the four types of reasoning abilities.

Q: _____ is defined as the extent to which group members feel comfortable disagreeing with other group members. A. Minority dissent B. Majority opinion C. Plurality opinion D. Majority influence E. Emotional intelligence

Q: According to the decision tree which of the following questions necessitates that a manager considers the harm or cost of an action to shareholders against the costs or benefits to other key constituents? A. Does the proposed action maximize shareholder value? B. Is the proposed action ethical? C. Does the action result in a more favorable financial position for an organization? D. Would it be ethical not to take the action? E. Is the proposed action legal?

Q: (p. 314) Differentiate between spatial and perceptual abilities. Describe types of jobs that may require each of these abilities.

Q: Which of the following questions should be asked first according to the decision tree? A. Does the proposed action maximize shareholder value? B. Is the proposed action ethical? C. Does the action result in a more favorable financial position for an organization? D. Would it be ethical not to take the action? E. Is the proposed action legal?

Q: (p. 315) What is quantitative ability? Describe its component abilities.

Q: (p. 314) "Cognitive abilities are the brain-based skills we need to carry out any task, whether simple or complex." Explain the statement.

Q: Which of the following is true about the expertise component of intuition? A. It reflects the automatic, underlying effect one experiences in response to an object, person, situation, or decision opportunity. B. This source of intuition increases with age and experience. C. It refers to the component of intuition that includes explicit knowledge and excludes tacit knowledge. D. People using this form of information may not be able to explain why they want to make a certain decision, except that the choice "feels right." E. It represents a judgment that is based on a subconscious integration of information stored in memory.

Q: Which of the following is true about tacit knowledge? A. It refers to feelings that influence the intuitive process. B. It is automatic, involuntary, and almost effortless. C. It refers to information gained through experience that is difficult to express and formalize. D. It can easily be put into verbal words, written documents, or numerical reports and explained to others. E. It tends to decrease with age.

Q: (p. 330) Which of the following is one of the most widely used cognitive ability tests? A. Wonderlic Personnel Test B. Keirsey Temperament Sorter C. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet D. NEO Five-factor Inventory E. Myers-Briggs Type Inventory

Q: Which of the following is true about explicit knowledge?A. It refers to feelings that influence the intuitive process.B. It can easily be put into verbal words, written documents, or numerical reports and explained to others.C. It is automatic, involuntary, and almost effortless.D. It tends to decrease with age.E. It refers to information gained through experience that is difficult to express and formalize.

Q: (p. 330) High cognitive ability has a strong correlation with: A. increased citizenship behaviors like helping a colleague. B. increased counterproductive behaviors like breaking office rules. C. increased affective, continuance, and normative commitment to the organization. D. increased task performance, especially in complex and demanding jobs. E. increased physical stamina and interpersonal functioning.

Q: Which of the following is true about intuition?A. An automated response represents a judgment that is based on a subconscious integration of information stored in memory.B. People relying on automated experiences make choices that based on explicit knowledge.C. A holistic hunch represents a choice that is based on a familiar situation and a partially subconscious application of previously learned information related to that situation.D. People using a holistic hunch may not be able to explain why they want to make a certain decision, except that the choice "feels right."E. Holistic hunches are decisions made based on previous familiar incidents.

Q: (p. 329) Which of the following is true regarding individuals with high cognitive ability? A. Individuals with high cognitive ability are not significantly better than others at task performance. B. Individuals with high cognitive ability also have significantly higher levels of organizational commitment than other employees. C. Testing to select employees with high cognitive abilities is widely discouraged and avoided as it discriminates between people. D. The relationship between high cognitive ability and task performance is observed in the academic context as well as in the work context. E. High cognitive ability tends to be equally correlated with the variables of task performance, citizenship behavior, and counterproductive behavior.

Q: _____ represents judgments, insights, or decisions that "come to mind on their own, without explicit awareness of the evoking cues and of course without explicit evaluation of the validity of these cues." A. Analytical style B. Logic C. Emotional intelligence D. Evidence-based decision making E. Intuition

Q: (p. 329) Which of the following is true with regard to testing of general cognitive ability? A. The EQ-i is a widely used test of general cognitive ability. B. The testing of general cognitive ability is unaffected by variables such as poor socio-economic status. C. The testing of general cognitive ability in academic contexts, through tests like SAT and GMAT is a valid measure of predicted success. D. Assessment of general cognitive ability also reveals the higher levels of organizational commitment and citizenship behavior seen in individuals with high cognitive ability. E. The results of testing general mental ability are not influenced by a deficit in learning opportunities.

Q: _____ style causes people to have a hard time saying no to others and to have difficulty making difficult decisions. A. Behavioral B. Judgment C. Directive D. Conceptual E. Analytic

Q: (p. 329) People who have _____ ability tend to be better at learning and decision making. A. higher general cognitive B. higher emotional C. higher interpersonal D. higher physical E. higher motivational

Q: Which of the following styles is the most people oriented style? A. Reasoning B. Behavioral C. Directive D. Conceptual E. Analytic

Q: Which of the following is a feature of people with a conceptual style? A. They have a low tolerance for ambiguity. B. They focus on the technical aspects of a work situation. C. They tend to overanalyze a situation. D. They are willing to take risks and are good at finding creative solutions to problems. E. They tend to be autocratic, exercise power and control, and focus on the short run.

Q: (p. 328-329) The effects of general cognitive ability on job performance are most pronounced in the area of _____. A. administrative skills B. managerial capabilities C. task performance D. interpersonal functioning E. affective commitment

Q: _____ individuals are careful decision makers who take longer to make decisions but who also respond well to new or uncertain situations. A. Control-oriented B. Behavioral C. Directive D. Conceptual E. Analytic

Q: (p. 328) _____ is a strong predictor of task performance. A. Emotional ability B. General cognitive ability C. Spatial ability D. Psychomotor ability E. Sensory ability

Q: People with a _____ style tend to be autocratic, exercise power and control, and focus on the short run. A. reasoning B. analytical C. directive D. conceptual E. behavioral

Q: Robin works for a small firm with only enough money budgeted to use one test to help with hiring decisions. What kind of test would be the most generally beneficial for the company, applicable to the most jobs. A. Test for general cognitive ability B. Test for emotional stability C. Test for honesty D. Test for physical ability E. Test for sensory ability

Q: People with a(n) _____ decision-making style have a low tolerance for ambiguity and are oriented toward task and technical concerns when making decisions. A. reasoning B. directive C. analytical D. conceptual E. behavioral

Q: (p. 327) Which of the following is a sensory ability? A. Response time B. Fine manipulative abilities C. Response orientation D. Control movement abilities E. Depth perception

Q: Lily had finished her high school and was ready to go to university. However, she also loved sports. She wanted to join a basketball academy and become a professional basketball player. She found this situation very stressful and was psychologically uncomfortable. This implies that Lily had a(n) _____. A. low tolerance for ambiguity. B. conceptual decision-making style. C. low need for structure. D. analytical style of decision making. E. high social concern.

Q: (p. 327) Which of the following is a psychomotor ability? A. Night vision B. Auditory attention C. Response orientation D. Speech recognition E. Depth perception

Q: _____ indicates the extent to which a person has a high need for structure or control in his or her life. A. Task concern B. Escalation of commitment C. Value orientation D. Tolerance for ambiguity E. Social concern

Q: (p. 327) Being able to focus on a single sound in the presence of many other sounds is termed as _____. A. auditory attention B. problem sensitivity C. speech recognition D. depth perception E. verbal comprehension

Q: (p. 327) The ability to hear and discriminate sounds that vary in terms of loudness and pitch is called _____. A. auditory attention B. hearing sensitivity C. speech recognition D. verbal comprehension E. oral expression

Q: _____ reflects the extent to which an individual focuses on either task and technical concerns or people and social concerns when making decisions. A. Need for control B. Escalation of commitment C. Value orientation D. Tolerance for ambiguity E. Need for structure

Q: (p. 327) The ability to identify and understand the words spoken by another person is called _____. A. hearing sensitivity B. written expression C. speech recognition D. auditory attention E. oral expression

Q: Which of the following principles should be implemented to help companies integrate evidence-based management? A. Treat your organization as a finished prototype B. Evidence-based management is only for senior executives C. Prohibit the system of "evidence-based misbehavior" D. Have inflated views of your organization's talents and chances for success E. See yourself and your organization as outsiders do

Q: (p. 327) Blue Wings Airlines is hiring new pilots. One of the key selection criteria for potential candidates is the ability to choose the right action quickly in response to several different signals and the ability to respond quickly to signaling information after it occurs. The selection criteria indicate that to be selected, a candidate must have the two psychomotor abilities of: A. perceptual speed and extent flexibility. B. number facility and response orientation abilities. C. response orientation and low response time. D. visualization and gross motor coordination. E. control movement abilities and originality.

Q: The senior managers of Optimum Inc., a multinational information technology firm, were concerned that people were not buying their computers. After reading the poor marketing reports, they decided to go out and buy their organization's PC's. The business head was shocked to see that customers were not impressed with Optimum PC's. They were also shocked to see a salesperson recommending customers to buy something other than an Optimum PC because they were of poor value. This small incident helped the organization to understand real customer experience and improve their products extensively. This instance is an example of _____. A. a normative process B. evidence-based decision making C. satisficing D. a nonrational process E. escalation of commitment

Q: (p. 327) The ability to judge relative distances between things accurately is called _____. A. near and far vision B. depth perception C. response orientation D. visualization E. visual color discrimination

Q: _____ represents a process of conscientiously using the best available data and proof when making managerial decisions.A. Evidence-based decision makingB. Escalation of commitmentC. SatisficingD. Nonrational processE. Normative process

Q: (p. 327) Which of the following is the ability that reflects how quickly an individual responds to signaling information after it occurs? A. Response time B. Perceptual speed C. Response orientation D. Hearing sensitivity E. Depth perception

Q: Which of the following actions should be adopted to reduce escalation of commitment? A. Set maximum targets for performance B. Avoid rotation of managers C. Keep same managers in key positions throughout a project D. Make decision makers aware of the costs of persistence E. Encourage decision makers to become ego-involved with a project

Q: (p. 327) The visual ability that helps one see things in low light contexts is called _____. A. near vision B. far vision C. night vision D. visual color discrimination E. depth perception

Q: _____ refers to the tendency to stick to an ineffective course of action when it is unlikely that the bad situation can be reversed. A. Fundamental attribution error B. Bounded rationality C. Escalation of commitment bias D. Satisficing E. Availability heuristic

Q: (p. 327) Sensory ability refers to: A. the ability to quickly respond to signaling information after it occurs. B. the capabilities associated with vision and hearing. C. the ability to synchronize the movements of the body, arms, and legs to do something while the whole body is in motion. D. the ability of the body to bend, stretch, twist, and reach. E. the ability to choose the right action quickly in response to several different signals.

Q: When there was a rapid increase in valuation of housing, lenders and buyers strongly believed that prices would keep going up. The subsequent drop in housing values left both banks and borrowers with huge losses. This incident is a result of: A. representativeness heuristic. B. anchoring bias. C. availability bias. D. fundamental attribution error. E. over-confidence bias.

Q: (p. 326) Mark is one of the most skilled employees at Hourly Watch which is a wristwatch manufacturing company that believes in preserving the traditional art of making watches by hand. Being an expert, he can often be seen handling screwdrivers and tweezers making intricate designs and fitting in parts. This reflects Mark's ability in the area of _____. A. gross body coordination B. fine manipulative abilities C. spatial orientation D. perceptual speed E. depth perception

Q: Antony was looking to buy a used car. His friends had asked him to check the model of the year of the car before buying it. He was thus focusing extensively on the odometer reading and the model of the year of the car to evaluate the value of the car, instead of inspecting the engine or the transmission of the vehicle. This implies that Antony was engaging himself in the _____ bias. A. representativeness B. anchoring C. availability D. fundamental attribution E. self-serving

Q: (p. 324) Which of the following is a physical ability? A. Self-regulation B. Visualization C. Quantitative ability D. Flexibility and coordination E. Spatial orientation

Q: A manager of an advertising firm appointed two employees to strike an advertising deal with one of their big clients. They were chosen as they had made a similar agreement previously with another client. Which of the following biases was the manager engaging in? A. Representativeness heuristic B. Anchoring heuristic C. Framing bias D. Fundamental attribution error E. Self-serving bias

Q: (p. 324) Athletes who perform on balance beams or ropes must display a high degree of _____. A. gross body equilibrium B. visualization C. perceptual speed D. visual color discrimination E. homeostasis

Q: _____ reflects a decision maker's estimate of the probability of an event occurring, reflecting the tendency to assess the likelihood of an event occurring based on one's impressions about similar occurrences. A. Fundamental attribution error B. Explicit knowledge C. Availability heuristic D. Representativeness heuristic E. Anchoring and adjustment error

Q: (p. 324) The ability to maintain the balance of the body in unstable contexts or while changing directions refers to _____. A. homeostasis B. gross body equilibrium C. extent flexibility D. gross body coordination E. dynamic flexibility

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