Q&A Hero

Q: (p. 361) In tasks with an objectively verifiable best solution, the member who possesses the highest level of the ability relevant to the task will have the most influence on the effectiveness of the team. These types of tasks are called _____. A. additive tasks B. conjunctive tasks C. subjunctive tasks D. disjunctive tasks E. indicative tasks

Q: Which of the following statements is true about conflict? A. Challenging and clear goals foster conflict. B. Men prefer to use a dominating conflict-handling style. C. Women prefer to use a compromising conflict-handling style. D. Employees from different cultures prefer the same conflict resolution techniques. E. Higher levels of conflict tend to reduce internal work motivation.

Q: (p. 360) When Ben performs routine tasks needed to keep progress moving in his team, he is performing the role of a(n): A. initiator-contributor. B. orienter. C. energizer. D. procedural-technician. E. compromiser.

Q: Which of the following statements about conflict is true? A. An avoidance style of handling conflict leads to higher group satisfaction than an integrative style. B. Aggression breeds mutuality of interest. C. Conflict increases as goal clarity increases. D. Men and women have different styles of handling conflict. E. Personality traits affect how people handle conflict.

Q: _____ is an alternative dispute resolution technique where the disputing parties agree ahead of time to accept the decision of a neutral third party in a formal court-like setting, often complete with evidence and witnesses. A. Ombudsman B. Peer review C. Conciliation D. Mediation E. Arbitration

Q: (p. 360) Which of the following statements about team and individualistic roles is true? A. An aggressor manipulates team members for personal control. B. A standard-setter expresses goals for the team to achieve. C. A gatekeeper offers challenges to the team's status quo. D. A slacker brags and calls attention to him or herself. E. A dominator is one who encourages participation from teammates.

Q: (p. 360) Which of the following is an example of a team task role rather than an individualistic role? A. Aggressor B. Recognition seeker C. Devil's advocate D. Dominator E. Blocker

Q: _____ is an alternative dispute resolution technique where a trained, neutral third party actively guides the disputing parties in exploring innovative solutions to the conflict but does not render a decision. A. Ombudsman B. Peer review C. Conciliation D. Mediation E. Arbitration

Q: (p. 360) Which of the following is a team task role? A. Encourager B. Blocker C. Energizer D. Follower E. Compromiser

Q: _____ is an alternative dispute resolution technique where someone who works for the organization, and is widely respected and trusted by his or her co-workers, hears grievances on a confidential basis and attempts to arrange a solution. A. Ombudsman B. Peer review C. Conciliation D. Mediation E. Arbitration

Q: _____ is an alternative dispute resolution technique where a panel of trustworthy co-workers, selected for their ability to remain objective, hears both sides of a dispute in an informal and confidential meeting. Any decision may or may not be binding. A. Ombudsman B. Peer review C. Conciliation D. Mediation E. Arbitration

Q: (p. 359) Which of the following has the characteristics of a team building role? A. Initiator-contributor B. Orienter C. Energizer D. Procedural-technician E. Compromiser

Q: (p. 360) Individualistic role behaviors: A. directly facilitate the accomplishment of team tasks. B. focus on activities that benefit the team as a whole rather than the separate team members. C. include the roles of harmonizer and the encourager. D. foster negative feelings among team members and hinder a team's ability to perform effectively. E. are particularly important in team contexts in which decisions are "high stakes" in nature.

Q: _____ is an alternative dispute resolution technique where a neutral third party informally acts as a communication conduit between disputing parties. A. Ombudsman B. Peer review C. Conciliation D. Mediation E. Arbitration

Q: Chris is frequently hostile to other team members, cynical about the goals of the team and others' engagement in the project, and sometimes disagrees and stubbornly blocks progress "just because." Chris' behavior reflects ______ roles. A. individualistic B. task oriented C. task destructive D. team manipulation E. power seeking

Q: _____ is an alternative dispute resolution technique where a third party urges disputing parties to deal directly with each other in a positive and constructive manner. A. Ombudsman B. Peer review C. Conciliation D. Mediation E. Facilitation

Q: (p. 358) Which of the following roles refers to behaviors that influence the quality of the team's social climate rather than work? A. Team task roles B. Team building roles C. Inferential roles D. Individualistic roles E. Thematic roles

Q: Gerard had come up with a new promotional idea for the latest product that his firm had created. However, his colleague Karl stole the idea and took the credit for it. This led to significant conflict between them. Karl later felt guilty for his wrong action and approached Jerry, a mutual friend, to help to settle the situation. This scenario is an example of a(n) _____. A. dialogic process B. conflict triangle C. devil's advocacy D. dialectic method E. integrative negotiation

Q: A(n) _____ occurs when two people are having a problem and, instead of addressing the problem directly with each other, one of them gets a third person involved. A. conflict triangle B. devil's advocacy C. dialectic method D. dialogic process E. integrative negotiation

Q: (p. 358) Which of the following best describes the function of the role of an orienter in a group? A. He offers constructive challenges to the team's status quo. B. He establishes the direction for the team. C. He motivates team members to work harder toward team goals. D. He resolves differences among teammates. E. He praises the work of teammates.

Q: (p. 358) In a group, the member performing the role of the devil's advocate: A. offers constructive challenges to the team's status quo. B. establishes the direction for the team. C. motivates team members to work harder toward team goals. D. resolves differences among teammates. E. praises the work of teammates.

Q: The _____ conflict-handling style is appropriate when parties have opposite goals or possess equal power. It is inappropriate when overuse would lead to inconclusive action. A. integrating B. obliging C. dominating D. avoiding E. compromising

Q: (p. 358) Which of the following statements about leader-staff teams is false? A. The members are bound to follow their duties and do not have any scope for improving their performance. B. The responsibilities of the leader and the rest of the team are distinct. C. The leader makes decisions for the team and provides direction and control over members. D. The members perform assigned tasks and cannot choose their own tasks. E. The members have some latitude with respect to the behaviors they exhibit.

Q: _____ is appropriate for trivial issues or when the costs of confrontation outweigh the benefits of resolving the conflict. A. Integrating B. Obliging C. Dominating D. Avoiding E. Compromising

Q: (p. 358) The behavior a person is expected to display in a given context is known as: A. role. B. goal. C. ability. D. value. E. belief.

Q: The _____ conflict-handling style is appropriate when an unpopular solution must be implemented, the issue is minor, or a deadline is looming. It is inappropriate in an open and participative climate. A. integrating B. obliging C. dominating D. avoiding E. compromising

Q: (p. 356-357) Which of the following statements about outcome interdependence is false? A. A high degree of outcome interdependence exists when team members share in the rewards that the team earns. B. High outcome interdependence implies that team members depend solely on their own performances for the rewards that they receive. C. Low outcome interdependence exists in teams in which individual members receive rewards and punishments on the basis of their own performance. D. Research into project teams shows that in teams in which members reflect on their performance, higher levels of outcome interdependence increase the amount of information shared among members. E. In teams with high outcome interdependence, the reward that the team receives is directly linked to the performance of each team member.

Q: The _____ style of handling conflicts has high concern for self and low concern for others, and speed is its primary strength A. integrating B. obliging C. dominating D. avoiding E. compromising

Q: (p. 357) In the FIFA World Cup soccer matches, the Golden Shoe award is given to the top goal scorer, without regard to the performance of the player's team. The award could go to a player whose team doesn't even reach the finals. This award is an example of _____ interdependence. A. high task B. low goal C. low task D. low outcome E. high outcome

Q: A person using the _____ conflict-handling style tries to play down differences while emphasizing commonalities, even to the point of neglecting his or her own concerns to satisfy the concern of the other party. A. integrating B. obliging C. dominating D. avoiding E. compromising

Q: (p. 356) A high degree of _____ interdependence exists when team members share in the rewards that the team earns. A. task B. goal C. sequential D. outcome E. reciprocal

Q: The main weakness of the _____ conflict-handling style is that it's a temporary fix that fails to confront the underlying problem. A. integrating B. obliging C. dominating D. avoiding E. compromising

Q: (p. 355) As the level of task interdependence _____, members must spend _____ amounts of time communicating and coordinating with other members to complete tasks. A. decreases; the same B. increases; increasing C. increases; decreasing D. decreases; increasing E. remains the same; increasing

Q: (p. 355) The highest level of interaction and coordination among members is required in _____ interdependence. A. comprehensive B. sequential C. pooled D. reciprocal E. response

Q: In the _____ style of handling conflict, the interested parties cooperatively identify the problem, generate and weigh alternatives, and select a solution. A. integrating B. obliging C. dominating D. avoiding E. compromising

Q: (p. 354) In _____ interdependence, members interact with a subset of other members to complete the team's work. A. pooled B. reciprocal C. response D. comprehensive E. sequential

Q: The strength of the _____ conflict-handling style is its longer lasting impact because it deals with the underlying problem rather than merely with symptoms. A. integrating B. obliging C. dominating D. avoiding E. compromising

Q: (p. 354) Member 1 → Member 2 → Member 3 → Member 4 → Output Which type of interdependence is represented by this diagram? A. Pooled B. Reciprocal C. Response D. Comprehensive E. Sequential

Q: A major drawback of _____ is that "winning the debate" may overshadow the issue at hand, leading to a less than desired conclusion. A. mediation B. the dialectic method C. the dialogic process D. devil's advocacy E. negotiation

Q: (p. 353-354) Leo Motors utilizes the classic assembly line in manufacturing its automobile products. Which type of interdependence is depicted? A. Pooled B. Reciprocal C. Response D. Comprehensive E. Sequential

Q: Laura is head of Ryan Systems. She needs to allocate a fixed amount of funds into various projects. There are two top projects that Laura believes hold the most promise. She decides to arrange a structured debate for the two top proposals. Importantly, the assumptions of each proposal are identified, and a conflicting counterproposal is generated based on a different set of assumptions. Advocates of each position present and debate the merits of their proposal before Laura makes her decision. Which technique is Laura using to help her make a better decision? A. Dialectic method B. Devil's advocacy C. Dialogic process D. Mediation E. Negotiation

Q: Place the following types of task interdependece relationships in rank order according to the level of coordination required of each. Number one should be the type of task interdependence requiring the least coordination and number four should be the type with with greatest coordination requirement.

Q: Jim is head of the marketing department and must decide how to allocate a fixed amount of funds. There are two top projects that Jim believes hold the most promise. Recently, the majority of funds have been allocated to Project A, but Jim wonders if it is time to provide Project B with a larger share of the money. Jim decides to assign a particular individual, Clara, to thoroughly criticize the proposal for Project B, looking for every possible flaw. Which technique is Jim using to help him make a better decision? A. Dialogic process B. Devil's advocacy C. Mediation D. Dialectic method E. Negotiation

Q: (p. 353) With _____ interdependence, different tasks are done in a prescribed order, and the group is structured such that the members specialize in these tasks. A. comprehensive B. sequential C. pooled D. reciprocal E. response

Q: _____ involves staging a structured debate of opposing viewpoints prior to making a decision. A. Mediation B. Devil's advocacy C. Dialogic process D. Dialectic method E. Negotiation

Q: (p. 352) The type of task interdependence with the lowest degree of required coordination among team members is _____ interdependence. A. comprehensive B. sequential C. pooled D. reciprocal E. response

Q: _____ involves assigning someone the role of critic. A. Mediation B. Devil's advocacy C. Dialogic process D. Dialectic method E. Negotiation

Q: (p. 352) The degree to which team members interact with and rely on other team members for the information, materials, and resources needed to accomplish work for the team is known as: A. task interdependence. B. goal interdependence. C. deep-level diversity. D. outcome interdependence. E. surface-level diversity.

Q: _____ conflict is defined as conflict that raises different opinions regardless of the personal feelings of the managers. A. Personality B. Programmed C. Cross-functional D. Integrative E. Distributive

Q: (p. 352) Which of the following best describes the group development pattern known as punctuated equilibrium? A. A team transitions directly from the storming stage to the adjourning stage as it is suddenly shut down. B. At the midpoint of the project, members realize that their behavior pattern must change in order to complete the project on time. C. Members of teams with a limited life span undergo a feeling of depression and anxiety when the time comes for the group to disband. D. A team skips the initial stages of forming and storming and begins directly at the performing stage of development. E. The attitudes and behaviors of members of a team do not change for as long as the team is in existence.

Q: Managers should _____ to build cross-cultural relationships. A. be excessively competitive B. avoid self-management C. compromise rather than dominate D. advocate transactional leadership E. avoid participative leadership

Q: Which of the following is true about cross-cultural conflict?A. Businesses conducted across cultures have fewer chances for conflict.B. Compromising enhances cross-cultural conflicts.C. Stereotypes in cross-cultural businesses need to be identified and enhanced.D. The potential for cross-cultural conflict is immediate.E. Cross-cultural conflict can be moderated by encouraging the concept of ethnocentrism.

Q: (p. 352) In the _____ stage of group development, members experience anxiety and other emotions as they disengage and ultimately separate from the team. A. performing B. forming C. storming D. norming E. adjourning

Q: According to the _____ the more members of different groups interact, the less intergroup conflict they will experience. A. contact hypothesis B. ethnocentric theory C. transfer theory D. transmission hypothesis E. diffusion theory

Q: (p. 352) In the _____ stage of team development, members are comfortable working within their roles, and the team makes progress toward goals. A. performing B. forming C. storming D. norming E. adjourning

Q: Which of the following is true about in-group thinking? A. Less cohesiveness leads to groupthink. B. Members of in-groups view themselves as being all alike. C. In-group members view themselves and members of other groups positively. D. In-group members view themselves and members of other groups as morally correct. E. In-group members exaggerate the differences between their group and other groups.

Q: (p. 352) In the _____ stage of team development, members come to realize that they need to work together to accomplish team goals, and consequently, they begin to cooperate with one another. A. performing B. forming C. storming D. norming E. projecting

Q: Which of the following tips should be used by employees having personality conflict? A. Take sides in someone else's personality conflict. B. Do not let parties work things themselves out. C. Avoid dragging co-workers into the conflict. D. Do not attempt informal dispute resolution. E. Avoid communicating directly with the other person to resolve the perceived conflict.

Q: Which of the following tips should be used by managers to reduce personality conflict? A. Take sides in someone else's personality conflict. B. Do not let parties work things themselves out. C. Do not attempt informal dispute resolution. D. Avoid communicating directly with the other person to resolve the perceived conflict. E. Investigate and document conflict.

Q: (p. 351) In the _____ stage of group development, members remain committed to ideas they bring with them to the team, and are unwilling to accommodate others' ideas. This triggers conflict that negatively affects some interpersonal relationships. A. storming B. adjourning C. norming D. forming E. performing

Q: A(n) _____ is defined as a paid day off where an employee showing lack of dedication to the job is granted the opportunity to rethink his commitment to working at your company. A. escalation of commitment day B. day of contemplation C. compensatory-off D. day of formal disciplinary process E. customary-off

Q: (p. 351) In the _____ stage of group development, members typically try to get a feel for what is expected of them, what types of behaviors are out of bounds, and who's in charge. A. performing B. forming C. norming D. adjourning E. storming

Q: George has a habit of disrupting meetings by asking irrelevant questions and daydreaming. He does not listen to his colleagues' ideas and presentations during meetings. His colleagues are getting irritated with his behavior. This implies that George is stimulating: A. programmed conflict. B. devil's advocacy. C. functional conflict. D. workplace incivility. E. the dialectic method.

Q: (p. 351) Which of the following represents the predictable sequence of stages in team development? A. Performing, forming, norming, storming, and adjourning. B. Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. C. Norming, forming, performing, storming, and adjourning. D. Norming, forming, storming, performing, and adjourning. E. Storming, norming, performing, forming, and adjourning.

Q: Two supervisors, Justin and Shawn, had been given instructions to trim their group size by two people. Justin's personality tended to favor people. He was generally more sensitive to people, and was a thoughtful supervisor. Shawn was just the opposite. He was more concerned with group production, and considered people's feelings secondary to the work. Hence their approaches in trimming their teams were different. They could not see the other's point of view and hence they left the discussion thinking ill of each other. Which of the following types of conflict did Justin and Shawn experience? A. Personality conflict B. Functional conflict C. Inter-group conflict D. Cross-cultural conflict E. Programmed conflict

Q: (p. 351) Work at Digicorp is accomplished continuously because members of a team who have finished their workday in one country electronically hand off the work to team members in another country who have just arrived at the office. This type of workflow is known as _____. A. farmshoring B. cross-docking C. featherbedding D. follow the sun E. time-to-market

Q: _____ conflict is defined as interpersonal opposition based on individual dislike or disagreement. A. Personality B. Distributive C. Programmed D. Integrative E. Intergroup

Q: (p. 349) Action teams: A. generally have tasks that are quite simple. B. are formed to take on "one-time" tasks. C. perform tasks that are normally limited in duration. D. invariably have low member involvement. E. help the organization achieve its long-term goals.

Q: When a situation is characterized by _____, managers should anticipate conflict. A. compatible value systems B. clear job boundaries C. independent tasks D. organizational simplicity E. collective decision making

Q: (p. 349) A musical group and a surgical team are examples of _____ teams. A. parallel B. project C. management D. action E. work

Q: Which of the following is true about organizational conflict? A. Interdependent tasks reduce conflict between employees. B. Competition should be encouraged for limited resources in order to reduce conflict. C. Conflict tends to increase as the number of hierarchical layers and specialized tasks increase. D. Adequate communication between employees can generate conflict. E. Conflict reduces an individual's capacity for empathy and intimacy with his or her opponent.

Q: (p. 349) A planning team comprising engineers, architects, designers, and builders, charged with designing a suburban town center is a(n) _____ team. A. parallel B. action C. work D. project E. management

Q: (p. 349) Quality circles, which consist of individuals who normally perform core production tasks but also meet regularly to identify production-related problems and opportunities for improvement, are an example of: A. work teams. B. management teams. C. parallel teams. D. action teams. E. project teams.

Q: Which of the following situations tend to produce either functional or dysfunctional conflict? A. Adequate communication B. Realistic expectations C. Reasonable deadlines D. Interdependent tasks E. Clear job boundaries

Q: (p. 349) A team was formed to coordinate the impending ISO accreditation process for a company over a period of six months. The team members are drawn from various departments. Which of the following types of teams does this most signify? A. Project teams B. Management teams C. Work teams D. Action teams E. Parallel teams

Q: Conflict is dysfunctional when: A. it serves organizational interests. B. it hinders organizational performance. C. people concentrate on the issue rather than the people involved in the issue. D. conflict episodes are viewed as personal attacks rather than attempts to resolve the problem. E. it can be handled with techniques such as devil's advocacy.

Q: Functional conflict: A. usually involves verbal attacks. B. is more likely to trigger defense mechanisms and a competitive orientation among team members. C. serves the interests of the organization. D. is a method of alternative dispute resolution. E. threatens the organization's interests.

Q: (p. 349) Which of the following teams focuses on providing recommendations and resolving issues? A. Work teams B. Management teams C. Parallel teams D. Action teams E. Project teams

Q: (p. 349) Philip, Tom, and Dan work in different teams at Leo Motors. Tom's team ensures that all the raw materials, machinery, tools and other production equipments are available for the employees round the clock. Any procurement needs have to be addressed to Tom, who also takes a call on the strategic decisions regarding the number of units to be produced, exported, etc. Dan works in a team of eight members who concentrate on the day-to-day production. They also ensure the quality checks are done and inspect each other's work. Philip is the operation manager, who works for five hours in the production department and then heads off to assist the management. His feedback is very crucial in improving the production process. Tom is part of a(n) _____ team. A. work B. management C. parallel D. action E. project

Q: Which of the following statements about conflict is true? A. Conflict should be completely eliminated across all departments. B. Conflicts should be promoted in some functions and discouraged in some others. C. Organizations experiencing excessive conflict tend to be plagued by apathy, lack of creativity, indecision, and missed deadlines. D. Use of technology and virtual teams could minimize organizational conflicts. E. Organizations can suffer from too little conflict.