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Q:
Which of the following statements regarding self-efficacy is true?
A) Physical and emotional state is never a factor when estimating an employee's self"‘efficacy.
B) Those with high self"‘efficacy are also likely to be self"‘actualized.
C) Higher self"‘efficacy has little impact on actual performance.
D) Feelings about one's competency are reflected in the concept of self"‘efficacy.
E) Behavioral models are not able to influence an employee's self-efficacy.
Q:
The _____ the self-efficacy, the _____ the performance.
A) Higher; worse
B) Higher; better
C) Lower; worse
D) Lower; better
E) All of the above are possible
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding expectancy theory?
A) Expectancy 2 is the likelihood you will receive certain outcomes if you reach acceptable performance.
B) The values given for outcomes are represented by a value called expectancy 2.
C) Expectancy 1 is represented on a scale from 1 to 10 with 1 being the minimum.
D) Expectancy 2 is fixed in a person's mind and is extremely difficult to change.
Q:
Which of the following statements about expectancy theory is true?
A) Expectancy 2 is related to self-efficacy.
B) Valence is the measure used for expectancy 1.
C) Expectancy 1 is 1.0 when related to a decision making (go vs. no go) process.
D) The valence of outcomes is the same for everyone.
E) Expectancy 1 is directly related to valence of outcomes.
Q:
Who is responsible for development of expectancy theory?
A) Maslow
B) Skinner
C) Vroom
D) Freud
E) Bandura
Q:
Which of the following is a "process" theory of motivation?
A) ERG theory
B) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
C) Reinforcement theory
D) Both A & B
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding punishment?
A) It does not usually reduce the future likelihood of a behavior.
B) It is a very effective form of motivation.
C) It has the same results as negative reinforcement.
D) It is an undesirable training tool.
E) Randomly administering punishment keeps trainees on their toes.
Q:
Negative reinforcement
A) Reduces the likelihood of a behavior.
B) Increases the likelihood of a behavior.
C) Requires removal of something unpleasant.
D) Both A & C.
E) Both B & C.
Q:
Which of the following depicts negative reinforcement?
A) After you do something, you are yelled at.
B) After you do something, you receive a reward.
C) After you do something, you receive no reward.
D) None of the above depicts negative reinforcement.
Q:
Stimulus leads to response which leads to consequence, best illustrates which theory?
A) Punishment
B) Consequence
C) Reinforcement
D) Needs
E) Classical Conditioning
Q:
Who laid the foundation for reinforcement theory?
A) Maslow
B) Skinner
C) Bandura
D) Freud
E) Thorndike
Q:
Classical conditioningA) Is an automatic response requiring no learning.B) Was discovered by Skinner.C) Is a learned response to a stimulus.D) Once learned cannot be unlearned.E) C & D.
Q:
Understanding needs theory is important in the training process because
A) Needs theory can help determine what kind of training design will be more effective.
B) Needs theory can provide insight into the attitudes of trainees.
C) Needs theory can help identify trainees' self efficacy.
D) All of the above.
Q:
In motivating trainees to learn, which of the following needs - existence, relatedness, or growth - should be the focus?
A) Existence
B) Relatedness
C) Growth
D) Both B & C
E) All of the above
Q:
Which of these statements is true?
A) Maslow is known for his early work on Classical Conditioning
B) Alderfer developed a needs theory based on Pavlov's early work.
C) Existence needs are the highest order needs.
D) Relatedness reflects people's need to be valued by others.
Q:
Which of the following is a needs theory?
A) Classical Conditioning
B) ERG
C) Reinforcement theory
D) Expectancy theory
E) A & C
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of motivation theories?
A) Needs are very similar for non-management employees.
B) Understanding needs helps you understand behavior.
C) Reinforcement theory is a commonly applied needs theory.
D) ERG is an acronym with the E representing the environment.
E) Maslow and Alderfer are two researchers commonly linked to process theories.
Q:
What are the factors that interact to determine performance?
A) Knowledge, skills, and attitudes
B) Environment, skills, and strategy
C) Attitudes, strategy, and motivation
D) Motivation, environment, and skills
E) Motivation, KSAs, and environment
Q:
The formula for performance (M X KSA X E) suggests
A) Only two of the three factors need to be favorable to obtain high performance.
B) If motivation is high and KSAs are adequate, at least moderate performance will be achieved.
C) If the environment is highly conducive to high performance, then motivation is not very important.
D) None of the above is correct.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true regarding theories?
A) They provide guidelines and principles.
B) They are abstractions that are best left for researchers and not applicable to practitioners.
C) They provide principles and predictions.
D) Successful people in business pay attention to them.
Q:
Which of the following is true about good theories?
A) They are seldom useful to practitioners.
B) They develop logical rationale for what is likely to be true.
C) They do not have to be empirically tested because they are true.
D) They have the ability to explain known facts, but are usually complex and require in-depth study.
E) A & D
Q:
Theories are
A) Useful for model building but impractical for practitioners.
B) Generally developed by all of us to help us understand how things work in our world.
C) Concrete steps in the "how-to" world.
D) Useful when they describe a set of facts and develop a logical rationale for what is likely to be true, given those facts.
E) Both B & D.
Q:
HRD and OD seem to complement one another but do not often work together in an organization. What are some of the reasons for this lack of cooperation? Why do HRD professionals need OD competencies and OD professionals need training competencies?
Q:
Should an organization's strategies be reactive, proactive, or both?
Q:
Name and briefly describe the three components to organization structure that are discussed in the text.
Q:
___A small business is much more likely to be involved in strategic planning than a larger one because it is easier for them.
Q:
___ The internal provider is a strategic training alternative whereby the training department provides all or most of the training for the organization.
Q:
___Force field analysis is a type of analysis used in a TNA.
Q:
___Trainers and OD practitioners have problems getting along because trainers tend to be more strategic and more overly analytical than OD practitioners.
Q:
___HRD contributes to the development of new strategies.
Q:
___Organizational design refers to the way the work is divided and organized.
Q:
___The main activity associated with producing an organization's principle products and services is often called the core technology.
Q:
___If the external environment is highly complex and highly stable, there is low uncertainty.
Q:
___Competitive strategy focuses on positioning products and services in the marketplace.
Q:
Cavalier Tool and Manufacturing decided not to pursue ISO certification because
A) They could not afford the cost associated with certification.
B) They had attempted certification a few years earlier and it had been unsuccessful.
C) Sometimes a customer required a "down and dirty" mold which would not be allowed under ISO certification.
D) The owner was not interested in certification.
Q:
Which of the following is a reason why some small businesses do not engage in strategic planning?
A) Time constraints
B) Unfamiliarity
C) Lack of skills
D) Lack of trust
E) All of the above
Q:
Most companies use the _____ strategy when addressing their training and development needs.
A) Primary provider
B) Mixed
C) Manager intermediary
D) Both A & C
Q:
Which best explains the strategic training alternative of the internal provider?
A) All or most training developed in house, each phase handled by specialists, and needs developed from a decentralized HRD function
B) All or most training purchased from outside sources, each phase handled by specialists, and needs developed from a centralized HRD function
C) All or most training activities provided by outside trainers and training function's role is to select and manage training suppliers
D) All or most training developed in house, each phase handled by specialists, and needs developed from a centralized HRD function
Q:
The outsourcing of training
A) Is useful when the company is large and has diverse training needs.
B) Is often used by small business.
C) Is not a good idea when you have a decentralized HRD function.
D) A & B
E) All of the above.
Q:
OD interventions could be implemented more successfully if they included training where employees
A) Developed a common knowledge and skill base in the area of the intervention.
B) Understood group dynamics and became skilled at working within groups.
C) Understood and became skilled at using a common problem"‘solving model.
D) Both A & C.
E) All of the above.
Q:
A reason there might be conflict among HRD and OD professionals is that the OD practitioner
A) Has a more tactical approach.
B) Tends to be seen as overly analytical.
C) Deals with mostly middle management.
D) Both A & B.
E) Both A & C.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a source of conflict and disagreement between OD and training professionals?
A) The difference between their perceived role and power base.
B) The nature of OD practices challenges assumptions underlying organizational practices.
C) OD principles interfere with the implementation of effective training programs.
D) OD professionals are more likely to be guided by data than training professionals.
E) Companies typically organize around their functional areas.
Q:
What can be done to reduce resistance to change?
A) Focus on changing one level (organizational, group, and individual) at a time.
B) Involve employees.
C) Let those who are satisfied with the status quo lead the way.
D) Both A & B.
E) All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding change?
A) Resistance is most often from non-management personnel.
B) Change requires effort and new learning.
C) Resistance is easily overcome.
D) The change process should only focus on the individual, group, or organizational level, not on all three.
E) OD practitioners and trainers have a similar tactical focus in dealing with change.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a step in the generic planned change model?
A) Goals are developed and handed down by a centralized top management team.
B) A compelling need for change is established.
C) The results of the approach are evaluated.
D) An approach to addressing the cause is selected.
E) All of the above are steps in a general planned change model.
Q:
Organizational development is best defined as
A) A profession that deals with reacting to changes in the external environment.
B) A profession and field of study that creates and implements planned change in organizations.
C) A profession and field of study that deals with creating and implementing new ideas in the organization.
D) A field of study and profession that deals with explaining serendipitous events.
Q:
How can HRD align itself with the organization's strategies?
A) By developing training that focuses on the market
B) By developing training to meet strategic performance objectives
C) By delivering training to the right people
D) Both B & C are correct
E) None of the above
Q:
According to the text, the strategic planning process at Hewlett Packard Canada in the late 1980's resulted in
A) The sales force reorganizing around specific products.
B) A concentration on the laser printer and increasing the profit margin on each unit.
C) Hewlett Packard being one of the toughest competitors in the marketplace.
D) Both A & C.
Q:
What is one reason companies should invest in strategic HR?
A) To be able to grow
B) To increase their market value
C) To centralize their strategies
D) To involve management
Q:
A mechanistic design is best applied in which of the following situations?
A) Non"‘routine technologies
B) Small businesses
C) High volume assembly lines
D) Where there are not clear answers to many of the problems that arise
E) A & D
Q:
Organizational design refers to
A) The type of technology used.
B) The type and style of decision making used.
C) How the division of labor is set up.
D) Both B & C.
E) None of the above.
Q:
You would typically associate routine technology with which of the following?
A) Those with market leader strategies
B) A low degree of predictability of outcomes or results
C) No defined solutions when problems do occur
D) Highly specialized technologies
E) All of the above are associated with routine technologies
Q:
A non-routine technology label is applied to tasks that have
A) Well structured and defined solutions to occurring problems.
B) Few problems.
C) Problems that occur often and unexpectedly.
D) A high degree of predictability.
E) All of the above.
Q:
__________ refers to the number of factors in an organization's environment and how they are interrelated.
A) Environmental uncertainty
B) Environmental flexibility
C) Environmental complexity
D) Environmental stability
E) None of the above
Q:
Low uncertainty in the external environment is created by
A) High complexity and low stability.
B) Low stability and low complexity.
C) High stability and low complexity.
D) Both A & B.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true in an uncertain environment?
A) The organization must rigidly define operating methods.
B) A market leader strategy is the best strategy to adopt.
C) There is less complexity in the environment.
D) Cost leader strategy is the best strategy to adopt.
Q:
The defender strategy is also referred to as
A) Differentiator.
B) Innovator.
C) Cost leader.
D) Market leader.
E) Market follower.
Q:
Which of the following is a market leader strategy?
A) Keep costs low
B) Develop new markets
C) Development of economies of scale
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
Q:
HRD should be involved in strategic planning by
A) Helping shape strategy.
B) Influencing the HR strategy.
C) Developing its own strategy in line with the strategic plan.
D) Both B & C.
E) All of the above.
Q:
Strategic planning that focuses on the long term is a(n)
A) Reactive strategy.
B) Proactive strategy.
C) Less formal analysis.
D) Objective setting process.
Q:
Strategic planning is best defined as
A) The development of a relatively long"‘term mission consistent with internal tactics.
B) The development of relatively short"‘term objectives that meet the executive committee objectives.
C) A process for determining how best to pursue the organization's mission while meeting the demands of the environment.
D) The development of values and ideals of the organization relevant to long-term objectives.
Q:
Describe how the model of training processes serves as a problem"‘solving tool. Include a brief explanation of each of the five phases.
Q:
Explain, with the use of a diagram, the key concepts of the "open systems model."
Q:
Define KSAs and explain the different levels of each. Use a diagram if you like.
Q:
___The highest level of knowledge is termed strategic knowledge.
Q:
___Compilation is the highest level of skill acquisition.
Q:
___In general, the smaller the organization, the fewer responsibilities each HRD employee will have.
Q:
___Higher birth rates are one of the reasons for the changing demographics in North America.
Q:
___The triggering event signals a need for a TNA.
Q:
___An open system has three parts input, process, and output.
Q:
___A key part of the Domtar strategy was training.
Q:
According to the text, _____ provides the opportunity for learning and _____ is a result of the learning.
A) Education; training
B) Development; training
C) Training; development
D) Education; development
E) None of the above
Q:
_________ is (are) the foundations for competencies.
A) Tests
B) KSAs
C) Strengths
D) Motivation
E) Skill sets
Q:
Linking competencies to a set of behaviors that allow you to "know it when you see it" is useful for
A) Hiring.
B) Training.
C) Determining rates of pay.
D) Both A & B.
E) All of the above.
Q:
A broad grouping of knowledge, skills, and attitudes that enable a person to be successful at a number of similar tasks is known as a
A) Competency.
B) Test.
C) Job analysis.
D) Strategy.
E) Skill set.
Q:
When a person is able to perform a skill without thinking about what they are doing, they are at which level of skill acquisition?
A) Automaticity
B) Automatic
C) Compilation
D) Responsive
Q:
A person's understanding about how and when to apply the facts that have been learned is called
A) Process knowledge.
B) Declarative knowledge.
C) Practical knowledge.
D) Perpetual knowledge.
E) Procedural knowledge.
Q:
The authors use the acronym KSA to refer to what?
A) Keep it Simple, and have the right Attitude
B) Knowledge, skills, and attitudes
C) Knowledge, strategy, and aptitude
D) Knowledge skills and abilities
Q:
Knowledge is composed of which three interrelated types?
A) Declarative, practical, and strategic
B) Declarative, practical, and skill
C) Compilation, automatic, and strategic
D) Declarative, procedural, and strategic
E) None of the above
Q:
A person's store of factual information about a subject matter is
A) Procedural knowledge.
B) Strategic knowledge.
C) Declarative knowledge.
D) Practical knowledge.