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Q:
____The job-duty-task method of job analysis is a worker-oriented approach.
Q:
____The worker-oriented approach to job analysis identifies the KSAs without having to assess the tasks that are done.
Q:
____If you determine there is a KSA deficiency, then the response is training.
Q:
____A TNA is always required when employees in an organization need to be trained in a specific area such as sexual harassment.
Q:
A criterion measure to assess declarative knowledge wouldA) Be very easy to develop.B) Be a multiple-choice test.C) Be behaviorally based.D) Focus on attitudinal relationships.
Q:
You cannot have a _______ measure unless the measure is _______.
A) Valid; relevant
B) Relevant; valid
C) Reliable; valid
D) Valid; reliable
E) Relevant; reliable
Q:
Sources of criterion contamination are
A) Error and opportunity bias.
B) Group characteristic bias and knowledge of predictor bias.
C) Declarative knowledge bias.
D) Both A & B.
E) All of the above.
Q:
What is it called when individuals have some advantage that provides them with a higher level of performance, irrespective of their own skill level?
A) Opportunity bias
B) Criterion deficiency
C) Halo affect
D) Knowledge predictor bias
Q:
__________ is the portion of the actual criterion that overlaps
with the __________.
A) Ultimate criterion; criterion relevance
B) Criterion relevance; ultimate criterion
C) Consistency; reliability
D) Ultimate criterion; criterion deficiency
E) Criterion deficiency; ultimate criterion
Q:
A measure of the consistency of an outcome, which is often measured using a correlation coefficient, is called
A) X.
B) Validity.
C) Reliability.
D) Both B & C.
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding small business and TNA is true?A) The proactive approach will be harder to implement in small businesses.B) Small business owners have no access to resources to aid them in training their employees.C) The main problem with the resources to aid small business in training is that businesses do not take advantage of them.D) Small business cannot afford to do a comprehensive TNA.
Q:
According to the text's authors, which approach to TNA is better?
A) Reactive assessment
B) Proactive assessment
C) The authors don"t say
D) A combination of proactive and reactive strategies
Q:
The identification and development of employees who are perceived to be of high potential is called
A) Promotion.
B) Succession planning.
C) Hiring.
D) Funneling.
E) Pet picking.
Q:
In response to a TNA, the decision is to "change the job." This means
A) There are too many obstacles in the system the way the job is currently set up.
B) Feedback is not occurring in the present setup.
C) There is a KSA deficiency but training is not the most effective solution.
D) Rewards are not tied to high performance.
Q:
When a KSA deficiency is determined, what is the appropriate response?
A) Training
B) Job aid
C) Practice
D) Any of the above, depending on the circumstances
Q:
When there is a performance gap but no KSA deficiency, what is the possible cause?
A) Motivation
B) Barriers to performance
C) Both A & B
D) It must be a KSA deficiency, as that is what a performance gap is defined as.
Q:
A speed test can appropriately be used to measure the _____ of a skill.
A) Compilation
B) Aggressiveness
C) Automaticity
D) Knowledge
Q:
According to the text, behavioral tests measure
A) Situational reaction.
B) Development.
C) Skills.
D) Learning capability.
E) None of the above.
Q:
A method to assess learning of strategic knowledge is termed
A) Probed Protocol Analysis.
B) Level 3 Analysis.
C) Declarative Analysis.
D) Paired Comparison.
Q:
Using paired comparison method is one way to assess_________ knowledge.
A) Procedural
B) Cognitive
C) Declarative
D) Strategic
Q:
Which of the following statements about multiple choice tests is NOT true?
A) You can give it to a large number of individuals at once.
B) It is easily scored.
C) It is easy to develop a reliable and valid test of this type.
D) All of the above are true.
Q:
For testing of knowledge, the use of speed tests is
A) Critical to effective testing.
B) Never of any value.
C) Calculated for multiple-choice tests by multiplying the number of questions by .75, which will give you the length of time in minutes.
D) None of the above is correct.
Q:
Self ratings
A) Tend to be too biased to be used effectively in a person analysis.
B) Have very high measurement error when compared to supervisor ratings.
C) Can be an effective part of the person analysis in a TNA.
D) Are not generally part of a 360-degree performance review.
Q:
Performance appraisals are almost always completed by
A) Peers and self.
B) 360-degree feedback.
C) Supervisors.
D) Work planning and review.
E) None of the above.
Q:
A good HRIS should provide information on
A) Previous positions individuals have held.
B) Training that individuals have received.
C) Performance levels.
D) All of the above.
Q:
One of the more common mistakes in developing competency modeling is
A) Not making the model tie in to the strategic goals.
B) Being too specific.
C) Simply making a list of positive attributes.
D) Focusing only on skills and knowledge.
Q:
When comparing competencies to KSAs, competencies
A) Are more specific in nature.
B) Have a shorter term fit.
C) Include knowledge, skills, and attitudes.
D) Are tied to corporate goals.
E) Both C & D.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding competencies?
A) They are much more specific and therefore more useful at targeting a job.
B) They include only skills and attitudes.
C) They tie to corporate goals.
D) They are only good for the short term.
E) None of the above is true.
Q:
A competency-based approach focuses on
A) Knowledge and skills.
B) Attitudes and personality.
C) All characteristics that underlie successful performance.
D) Motivational characteristics.
Q:
In ________ competencies are defined as "what someone needs to be doing to be competent in their job."
A) North America
B) United Kingdom
C) Australia
D) Both B & C
E) All of the above
Q:
In ________ competencies are defined as "a cluster of related knowledge, skills, and attitudes that differentiate high performers from average performers."
A) North America
B) United Kingdom
C) Australia
D) Both A & B
E) All of the above
Q:
The approach to operational analysis which identifies key competencies of the job is known as
A) Job analysis.
B) Worker-oriented approach.
C) Task-oriented approach.
D) Competency modeling.
Q:
Recall the example in the text where Ford Motor Company was building a new engine plant in Windsor that was to focus on the "team approach" to building the engines. Which of the following statements is true regarding that example?
A) The majority of those hired were university educated and had experience in the team approach.
B) One of the goals of the training was to improve attitudes toward the team approach.
C) Evaluation of the training indicated an improvement in employees' communication skills.
D) The promise of training related to self-fulfillment never materialized.
Q:
In the example provided in the text of analyzing a job when there are no incumbents, Dr. Fields
A) Asked the manufacturer of the new equipment to learn if there was similar equipment in operation elsewhere so he could interview those incumbents.
B) Interviewed engineers responsible for designing the new equipment.
C) Obtained blueprints for the new equipment.
D) Both A & B.
E) All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding job analysis is true?
A) In the task-oriented approach, you first identify the tasks before determining the KSAs required.
B) KSAs are made up of multiple competencies.
C) The worker-oriented approach goes directly to determining the KSAs, then determines the tasks so it is more effective.
D) The PAQ is more effective than the task-oriented approach.
E) Competency modeling is a more scientific approach and job analysis is not as relevant anymore.
Q:
The _____ approach identifies the various work activities required to successfully perform a job.
A) PAQ
B) task-oriented
C) worker-oriented
D) Both A & C
Q:
The _____ approach to job analysis immediately identifies the KSAs required for the job.
A) Task"‘oriented
B) Worker-oriented
C) Operational analysis
D) Job-duty-task
Q:
The selection process of incumbents in operational analysis should be performed by
A) A supervisor.
B) The manager of the organization.
C) A head hunter.
D) A job analyst.
Q:
An outline of a typical job's duties and responsibilities is a
A) Job description.
B) Job specification.
C) Performance standard.
D) Task outline.
E) None of the above.
Q:
In an organizational analysis, who do you ask about job design issues?
A) Top management
B) Relevant supervisors
C) Incumbents
D) Both B & C
E) All of the above
Q:
When an OPG is identified, a(n) _____________ should be conducted in conjunction with an organizational analysis in order to fully understand the nature of the gap.
A) System analysis
B) Operational analysis
C) Performance evaluation
D) Goal analysis
Q:
In the example provided in the text where the bank manager sent his tellers to training on the products and services the bank provided, the training resulted in a _____ percent increase in services sold to customers.
A) 0
B) 25
C) 50
D) 80
Q:
As discussed in the text, about what percentage of training requests did Nancy Gordon of Ameritech say turn out to be solvable without training?
A) 10 percent
B) 25 percent
C) 85 percent
D) 99 percent
Q:
Organizational analysis should focus on
A) Mission and capital resources.
B) Job analysis.
C) Human resources and organizational environment.
D) Both A & C.
E) All of the above.
Q:
When a(n) _____ analysis is conducted for strategic planning, it is a major undertaking. The _____ and relevant strategies that have been identified in the strategic plan are an indication of where the firm wishes to be.
A) Organizational; mission
B) Operational; organizational
C) Performance; person analysis
D) Operational; goals
Q:
_____ involves looking at all the influences that could affect employee performance in the organization and determining their fit within organizational goals and objectives.
A) Performance analysis
B) Operational analysis
C) Goals analysis
D) Organizational analysis
E) Personnel analysis
Q:
Looking at the internal environment of an organization and determining its fit with organizational goals and objectives is associated with which TNA component?
A) Operational Analysis
B) Performance Discrepancy
C) Organizational Analysis
D) Person Analysis
E) Organizational Laddering
Q:
When a performance gap is identified and there is shown to be a lack of KSAs
A) There is no need to determine if there are motivational issues present.
B) You still might want to determine if there are any barriers to performance.
C) Training is the only option for dealing with the lack of KSAs.
D) A & C.
Q:
To deal with a KSA deficiency, an appropriate remedy suggested in the text is
A) Training.
B) Changing the job.
C) Providing proper feedback.
D) Both A & B.
E) All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following focuses on a current performance problem?
A) The PAQ
B) A reactive TNA
C) A proactive TNA
D) Work sampling
Q:
Which of the following focuses on an anticipated performance problem in the future?
A) The PAQ
B) A reactive TNA
C) A proactive TNA
D) Work sampling
Q:
A training needs analysis is conducted when a
A) Setback event occurs.
B) Triggering event occurs.
C) Decision to provide sexual harassment training is made.
D) Deficiency is determined to be a motivational deficiency.
Q:
When a TNA is conducted, it
A) Guarantees that the time and money spent on training is spent wisely.
B) Determines the benchmark for evaluation of training.
C) Provides essential information in the implementation of the strategic plan.
D) Both B & C.
Q:
A triggering event
A) Is a comparison of a reactive and proactive TNA.
B) Occurs when actual organizational performance is greater than expected organizational performance.
C) Occurs when actual organizational performance is less than expected organizational performance.
D) Usually means some employees require training.
Q:
Two definitions of learning were presented in the text; one was behavioral and one was cognitive. Explain each and indicate the major difference between these definitions and what the training implications of each are.
Q:
Explain Social Learning Theory.
Q:
Explain ERG theory.
Q:
____One of the differences between the behaviorist and cognitive approach to learning is that the cognitive approach is more subject oriented and developed by the instructor.
Q:
___Self-efficacy is an important concept in understanding motivation.
Q:
____Expectancy theory is the most popular need theory today.
Q:
____Punishment is an undesirable management and training tool.
Q:
___Negative reinforcement reduces the likelihood that a behavior will be repeated.
Q:
___Relatedness is the middle need in Alderfer's needs theory.
Q:
____Needs theories attempt to describe and explain how a person's needs are translated into actions to satisfy their needs.
Q:
___Performance is a function of motivation times KSAs.
Q:
___The best way to improve employee performance is to "copy" a successful organization's motivational tactics.
Q:
Which studies compared the effects of participation vs. no participation in organizational change endeavors in the 1940's?A) The Pajama factory experimentsB) The Hawthorne experimentsC) The Bandura experimentsD) The OD experiments
Q:
Resistance to learning occurs when
A) The trainee is not motivated.
B) The trainee does not have the necessary prerequisite KSAs.
C) The environment is not conducive to learning.
D) There is little or no supervisor support.
E) All of the above.
Q:
The power of the group comes from the group _______ members that follow group norms, or _______ those that do not.
A) Punishing; rewarding
B) Rewarding; training
C) Requesting; training
D) Rewarding; punishing
Q:
The power that a group has over its members was first noted in which studies of the 1920's and the 1930's?
A) Watson studies
B) Hawthorne studies
C) Pajama factory studies
D) Group norm studies
Q:
Gagn-Briggs' micro theory of instructional design
A) Is useful for understanding learning but not for development of training.
B) Is a guide for designing training events in each module of the training program.
C) Is similar to the ERG theory of motivation.
D) Focuses on the content of the training, not the training process.
Q:
The Gagn-Briggs theory of instructional design
A) Has three events: attention, retention, and behavioral reproduction.
B) Has "gaining attention" as its first event.
C) Is only useful for designing effective lectures.
D) Both A & B.
Q:
Asking trainees to provide examples of how the knowledge being trained relates to what they already know facilitates
A) Chaining.
B) Verbal association learning.
C) Cognitive organization.
D) Operant conditioning.
Q:
Symbolic coding is
A) The second stage of attracting attention.
B) Where you rehearse in your mind how to "do it."
C) Part of the retention process.
D) A design method for assuring learning.
Q:
In social learning, theory retention has three phases which are
A) Attention, symbolic coding, behavioral reproduction.
B) Recognize, recall, retain.
C) Attention, motivation, symbolic coding.
D) Symbolic coding, cognitive organization, symbolic rehearsal.
E) None of the above
Q:
A basic premise in Social Learning Theory is
A) A person can only learn by behaving in some way.
B) A person can learn merely through observation.
C) Events can be learned without being processed.
D) Consequences of behavior do not influence learning.
Q:
Which of the following best describes the cognitive approach to training?
A) Subject"‘oriented
B) Formal, authority"‘oriented, judgmental, and competitive
C) Interactive, group, project"‘oriented, and experiential
D) Relaxed, mutually trustful, respectful, and collaborative
E) Both C & D
Q:
Which of the following is true about studying motivation from a behaviorist approach?
A) It is most reflected in how the behaviorist approach describes the brain's function in learning.
B) It suggests that learning is not controlled by the environment.
C) It suggests that trainers control learning by controlling the stimuli and consequences that the learner experiences.
D) Bandura is the best-known contemporary behaviorist.
Q:
Which of the following statements about learning is true?
A) It is not closely tied to memory.
B) It is always observable.
C) It must be retained to be useful.
D) It is always measurable by testing.
Q:
Which of the following statements best explains the relationship between training and self"‘efficacy?
A) The two concepts are not related.
B) Training can act to improve low self"‘efficacy only when employees have the required KSAs.
C) It is useful to assess trainee self"‘efficacy prior to training only.
D) Self"‘efficacy beliefs are a good predictor of learning in the training environment.