Q&A Hero

Q: ____Guided discovery is a method for facilitating symbolic coding.

Q: ____Cognitive organization is where you rehearse in your mind how to do the task being trained.

Q: ____Individuals who are given hard or challenging goals perform better than those given easy goals.

Q: ____Classical conditioning issues are not relevant for consideration in training as it is the most basic of learning which we have no control over.

Q: Organizational culture can be described as A) Shared basic assumptions. B) Shared values or understandings. C) A pattern. D) All of the above.

Q: The perception of salient characteristics of an organization is A) Culture. B) Environment. C) Climate. D) Surroundings. E) All of the above.

Q: To facilitate transfer, support from _________ should be incorporated into the training design. A) Supervisors B) Peers C) Trainers D) Both A & B E) All of the above

Q: The process of relapse prevention was A) Not very effective until combined with expectancy theory. B) Not at all effective alone C) More effective when combined with goal setting. D) Only effective for blue-collar training.

Q: Often training is intended to give trainees concepts and principles they can use to address a wide variety of situations they will find on the job. In these cases, the training should use the _________ approach. A) Identical elements B) Global positioning C) General principles D) Repetitive responses

Q: _____ is the process of providing trainees with continued practice far beyond the point at which the trainees have performed the task successfully. A) Effective training B) Inefficient training C) Over learning D) Maximized similarity E) Mass production training

Q: _____ is particularly valuable for tasks that are not used frequently or if the opportunity to practice them is limited. A) Massed practice B) Over learning C) Whole learning D) Spaced practice

Q: Which of the following terms is used to reflect maximizing the similarity of the training to the job? A) Identical elements B) Increased similarity C) Repetitive responding D) Identical skills

Q: Should training be designed to teach everything together or the individual component parts? A) Everything together, the "big picture" B) The component parts C) It depends on the trainer D) It depends on the task

Q: How many extra steps are required when doing strategic knowledge training, compared to traditional training? A) One B) Two C) Three D) None, each step has more information provided but there is the same number of steps

Q: If after training, the trainee is performing at a level lower than before, this means that there is (are) A) Zero transfer. B) Negative transfer. C) Obstacles in the system preventing transfer. D) Negative outcomes associated with the trained behavior.

Q: When examining transfer of training, how many possibilities are there beyond "positive transfer"? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four

Q: Incorporating _____ into training requires that the training content be extended to include learning when and why the use of a skill or knowledge is appropriate and the task"‘relevant strategies for planning, monitoring, and revising behavior. A) Expectancy theory B) Team building C) Strategic human resource management D) Strategic knowledge development

Q: The final event in the Gagn-Briggs model is to A) Elicit performance. B) Provide feedback. C) Assess performance. D) None of the above.

Q: The micro theory of training design proposed by Gagn-Briggs has ____ events of instruction. A) Three B) Four C) Eight D) Nine E) Twelve

Q: The Gagn-Briggs theory of training design is applicable to A) Cognitive learning. B) Behavioral learning. C) Attitudinal learning. D) All of the above.

Q: The text discusses the process in the elaboration theory of having an air traffic controller presented with a simulation where only one aircraft is on the screen and there is no wind or other adverse weather conditions. This type of task is called the A) Relevant task. B) Epitome. C) Elaboration. D) Extrapolation.

Q: In the elaboration theory, the process of identifying progressively more complex versions of the task is known as A) Epitomizing. B) Elaborating. C) Extrapolating. D) Cognitive extrapolation.

Q: In the elaboration theory, the process of identifying the simplest version of a complex task which is still representative of the total task is called A) Epitomizing. B) Elaborating. C) Extrapolating. D) Cognitive simplification.

Q: In the elaboration theory of training design, SCM refers to A) The sequencing conditions method. B) Sequencing cognitive material. C) The simplifying conditions method. D) Simple cognitive material. E) None of the above.

Q: Sequencing in elaboration theory is the process of A) How to seat trainees for the most impact. B) How to organize the training to be assured everyone has the opportunity to speak. C) How to group and order the content of training. D) Assigning trainees to groups.

Q: Elaboration theory is relevant for A) Simple tasks. B) Complex tasks. C) Attitudinal training. D) A & B. E) All of the above.

Q: Which macro theory of training design is outlined in the text? A) Elaboration theory B) Systems theory C) Gagn-Briggs theory of training design D) Social learning theory E) Both A & B

Q: ____ is practicing symbolically and _____ is the transformation of the learning into actual behavior. A) Symbolic coding; rehearsal behavior B) Symbolic rehearsal; behavioral reproduction C) Symbolic rehearsal; symbolic behavior D) Cognitive rehearsal; behavioral reproduction E) Cognitive organization; reproduction

Q: Converting the external world into our own mental language is called A) motivation. B) cognitive organization. C) symbolic coding. D) symbolic rehearsal.

Q: Before a training session, a trainee should be provided with the A) Training objectives. B) Training agenda. C) Training manual. D) Both A & B.

Q: At which point should trainees be notified of the training objectives? A) When they are notified they will be participating in a training program B) At the onset of training C) After the completion of the training D) It doesn"t matter as long as the trainees' supervisor is aware E) Both A & B

Q: Asking trainees to think about events in their past that are related to the content of the training is designed to facilitate A) cognitive organization. B) symbolic coding. C) symbolic rehearsal. D) A & B. E) All of the above.

Q: Without _____, it is very difficult to evaluate training. A) Personnel objectives B) Performance appraisals C) Organizational outcomes D) Learning objectives

Q: Expectancy 1 is the belief that A) Desired performance will lead to desired outcome. B) Training will lead to desired outcome. C) Trainees should be aware of what can be achieved. D) Effort will lead to desired performance.

Q: Which of the following statements regarding self efficacy is true?A) Those with high self efficacy are more likely to learn, but not necessarily transfer this learning to the job.B) A person's self efficacy is almost impossible to change in adulthood.C) It can be improved through vicarious learning.D) Self efficacy is similar to Expectancy 2 in Expectancy theory.

Q: Trainees with _______ learning style remember material best if they are given the opportunity to think about the new information before discussing it with others. A) Global B) Verbal C) Active D) Reflective

Q: Trainees with _______ learning style remember material best if they are first given the "big picture." A) Global B) Verbal C) Sensor D) Visual

Q: Trainees with _______ learning style remember material best if they can see how it is connected to the real world. A) Global B) Verbal C) Sensor D) Visual

Q: ____________ learners like to learn facts and solve problems using well-tested methods. A) Intuitive B) Sensing C) Visual D) Verbal

Q: Which of the following statements is true?A) Intuitive learners appreciate practical applications in training.B) To assist active learners, have group discussion.C) To assist global learners, provide them with lecture notes with missing key terms, etc. and have them fill in the blanks after a module is completed.D) Sensor learners appreciate a theoretical focus.

Q: Training objectives provide value to A) The trainee. B) The training designer. C) The trainer and the training evaluator. D) Both A & C. E) All of the above.

Q: Which of the following statements is true? A) Some argue that developing objectives inhibits flexibility. B) Some argue that developing objectives is not practical in today's workplace. C) The text suggests learning objectives keep the trainer focused on the correct material. D) All of the above are true.

Q: A purpose statement A) Describes the purpose of the objective. B) Brings all the training objectives into one statement. C) Describes the purpose of the TNA. D) None of the above.

Q: What is missing from this learning objective? "The trainee will splice 6 sets of wires while at the top of a telephone pole wearing all safety gear." A) Standard B) Condition C) Complete behavior D) Nothing, it is a proper learning objective

Q: "Using a standard climbing harness and spikes" is an example of what part of a learning objective? A) Desired outcome B) Condition C) Standard D) Requirement

Q: Which of the following is true with regards to learning objectives? A) They are relatively easy to compose. B) They contain 3 parts " desired outcome, standard, and criteria. C) There is usually only one for a training program. D) They are used only for skill level training. E) None of the above is true.

Q: ""¦. read an altimeter with an error of no more than 5 feet" is an example of what part of a learning objective? A) Desired outcome B) Condition C) Standard D) Requirement

Q: Which of the following statements about learning objectives is true? A) You must always include three components: outcome, conditions, and standards. B) They should be general so not to limit the training. C) Anyone reading the objective should be able to tell you what the trainees must do to show they have learned the KSAs. D) Specific standards are helpful but not always necessary.

Q: How many parts are there to an effective learning objective? A) Two B) Three C) Four D) Five

Q: The way that trainees are required to demonstrate that they have learned a KSA they are expected to acquire through training is called a A) Training objective. B) Learning objective. C) Transfer of training objective. D) Organizational outcome objective.

Q: How many types of training objectives are indicated in the text? A) Three B) Four C) Five D) Eight

Q: When the TNA identifies different levels of KSAs among the trainees A) Computer-based instruction could be used. B) Training could be designed in a modular manner. C) Small classes could be used. D) All of the above.

Q: When estimating training costs, it is a good idea to build in a contingency fund of about _____ percent. A) 2 B) 10 C) 25 D) 30

Q: If a major constraint is "short lead time" (therefore there is not much time to prepare training), one viable option is use of A) Programmed instruction. B) Modularization. C) External consultants. D) Massed practice.

Q: List two of the organizational/environmental constraints and three of the trainee population constraints to training and suggestions for how to handle each.

Q: Why are peer support and supervisor support important to the transfer process?

Q: Understanding the various factors that facilitate learning is one of the outputs of the design phase. What are the other two outputs?

Q: When should the whole learning method be utilized? If the task can be divided into parts, the "whole" method is more advantageous when (a) trainee intelligence is high, (b) training material is high in task organization, but low in task complexity, and (c) practice is spaced rather than massed.

Q: What is a "sit-in" and what are the conditions necessary for it to be effective?

Q: ____Changing the organizational culture can be done quickly through training

Q: ____Reward systems should be aligned to support the behaviors learned in training.

Q: ____One of the key determining factors for the successful transfer of training is supervisory support.

Q: ____Goal setting, when combined with relapse prevention, is effective at facilitating positive transfer of training.

Q: ____Negative transfer occurs when the trainee goes back on the job and there is no change in his performance level.

Q: ____Massed practice is another term for overlearning.

Q: ___The final event in the Gagn-Briggs nine events of instruction is "enhance retention and transfer."

Q: List five sources of data for person analysis and their training need implications.

Q: Define criterion deficiency and criterion contamination.

Q: Compare reliability and validity.

Q: Discuss the proactive approach and the reactive approach to TNA.

Q: ____ It is not possible to have a reliable test that is not also valid

Q: ____ Bias is caused by random variation.

Q: ____ The ultimate criterion is the measure you use in assessing training effectiveness.

Q: ____In smaller organizations it would be easier to integrate a proactive approach to TNA than in larger organizations.

Q: ____The proactive approach to TNA focuses on a specific problem.

Q: ____A job aid is one approach to dealing with a KSA deficiency.

Q: ____The only output from a TNA is training needs.

Q: _____Self-ratings are useful tools in determining the needs of an employee.

Q: ____Supervisory ratings are the most effective method to use in a person analysis.

Q: ____Some advantages of using competencies are that they are more general and tend to be tied to corporate goals.