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Q:
Cost effectiveness evaluation _____.
A) Compares the monetary costs of training to the financial benefits accrued from training
B) Compares the monetary costs of training to the non"‘monetary benefits from training
C) Compares the social costs of training to the financial benefits accrued from training
D) Compares the monetary costs of trainers to the financial benefits accrued from training
E) Compares the monetary costs and non"‘monetary costs of training to the financial benefits accrued from training
Q:
Which kind of analysis compares the monetary cost of training with the intangible or nonmonetary results?
A) Cost saving
B) Cost effectiveness
C) Cost benefit
D) All of the above
Q:
Research has shown the relationship between reaction, learning, behavior and results is
A) Strongly correlated.
B) Weakly correlated.
C) Evidence is mixed.
D) None of the above.
Q:
Training was developed to improve productivity. When assessing training's effectiveness at the organizational results level, which of the following would be the most appropriate thing to focus your attention on?
A) Organizational profitability
B) Work unit productivity
C) Market share
D) Corporate strategy
E) All of the above
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding the evaluation of transfer of training?
A) It is often more difficult to assess than organizational results.
B) The evaluation needs to take place a few weeks after training, before forgetting becomes a possibility.
C) Attitude change needs to be measured using well-developed instruments.
D) It is useful to ask coworkers if they have noted the specific change in behavior.
E) C & D
Q:
If the training was designed to teach trainees how to use the new forms that were developed by Human Resources, you can expect to measure this transfer of training
A) In about 6 months.
B) In about 3 weeks.
C) It is not necessary if learning was indicated to have occurred.
D) A few days after training.
Q:
Scripted situations are a
A) Process for assessing learning.
B) Process for training interpersonal skills.
C) Process for assessing transfer of training to the job.
D) Means of measuring attitudes.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding learning outcomes?
A) There are two main categories, knowledge and skill.
B) To assess knowledge, you will need to develop a knowledge test.
C) Learning must be determined within the first 2 weeks after training.
D) It is sometimes useful to assess learning periodically during training.
Q:
Which of the following times is best for providing the opportunity to complete a reaction questionnaire?
A) During training (after each segment)
B) Immediately following training
C) One or two months after training
D) A or B, depending on what information you are after
E) A, B, or C, depending on what information you are after
Q:
Which of the following categories should be included in a reaction questionnaire?
A) Relevance of training
B) Training content
C) Trainer's behavior
D) Both A & B
E) A, B, & C
Q:
Which of the following is NOT obtained from a reaction questionnaire?
A) Facilities issues
B) Trainer issues
C) Amount of learning
D) Perceived value of training
E) Relevance of training
Q:
Which of the following statements concerning reaction questionnaires is NOT true?
A) They are used to determine what trainees thought about training.
B) There are two classifications of reaction questionnaires.
C) Utility reaction questionnaires reflect the trainee's belief about the value of the training.
D) All of the above are true.
Q:
What are the outcome levels of evaluation identified in the text?
A) Proactive and reactive
B) Cost benefit and cost effectiveness
C) Reaction, learning, behavior, and organizational results
D) Utility, value, and evaluative
Q:
_____ are measures of the trainee's perceptions, emotions, and subjective evaluations of the training experience.
A) Reaction outcomes
B) Learning outcomes
C) Job behavior outcomes
D) Organizational results
E) Value outcomes
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding process evaluation is true?
A) The training manager is always interested in this data.
B) It is not that important to gather such information for a one- time half-day seminar.
C) Trainees are not interested in this data.
D) Only newer trainers are interested in this type of data.
Q:
Outcome evaluation determines
A) The learning outcomes.
B) How well the training accomplished its goals.
C) How well the trainer covered the objectives.
D) None of the above.
Q:
According to the text, which of the following groups would be interested in "process evaluation" data?
A) Trainers (including trainer doing the training)
B) Trainees
C) Trainees' supervisor
D) Both A & B
E) All of the above
Q:
Evaluation of the _____ examines how the training was carried out. _____ evaluation determines if training accomplished its _____.
A) Process; Outcome; Objectives
B) Objectives; Process; Task
C) Outcome; Task; Goals
D) Design; Implementation; Strategy
Q:
Which of the following are reasons usually given by managers for not evaluating training?
A) Nothing to evaluate
B) Too complex a job
C) No one cares about the evaluation
D) Both A & C
E) All of the above
Q:
What are the inputs into the evaluation phase of training?
A) Evaluation strategy and design
B Evaluation objectives and design issues
C) Organizational constraints
D) B & C
E) A & C
Q:
What is transfer of training and what are the factors that impact transfer of training?
Q:
There are a number of ideas that should be considered when implementing training. Choose 3 of the following headings and provide what needs to be considered " Preparation, First impression, Start of training, The podium, and Communication tips.
Q:
What is active listening and why is it necessary?
Q:
List and give a short explanation of three of the techniques discussed by the authors for maintaining interest in training.
Q:
Identify what Carl Rogers' active listening method involves. (Hint: there are three points identified in the text.)
Q:
____Supervisory support is the most important factor for transfer of training.
Q:
____One way to deal with an angry trainee is to ask them to identify ways in which the training might help them.
Q:
____Telling trainees information which is not relevant to training (such as stories about your children) is referred to as dysfluencies.
Q:
____If you are training auto workers, it is a good idea for the trainer to dress in a business suit for credibility.
Q:
____Learning objectives should be sent to trainees before training and need not be dealt with at the training session as it takes up too much time.
Q:
____In the "experiential learning model" the first step (the experience) corresponds to the first step (attention) of Gagne's 9 events of instruction.
Q:
____The implementation phase of the training model has as its process both dry run and pilot program.
Q:
____An ice breaker is a game or exercise that gets the trainees involved in meeting and talking with others in the training session.
Q:
____Both use of consultants and outside seminars are alternatives to development of your own training program
Q:
The difference between a dry run and a pilot program isA) Trainees are at the pilot program to be trained.B) The dry run is always the whole training program whereas the pilot does not have to be.C) A pilot is a "first test" whereas the dry run is the "second test."D) The main objective of the dry run is to provide trainees with relevant training whereas the pilot program is concerned only with the effectiveness of training.E) All of the above.
Q:
In training, having a "comedian"
A) Is an advantage as he/she can generally lighten up the tone of training.
B) Is a curse because jokes tend to offend some.
C) Almost never happens so it is not worth discussing.
D) Is nothing to be concerned about.
E) Both A & B.
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding the quiet trainee is true?
A) For learning to take place the trainer must get the quiet trainee as involved and taking part in discussions as everyone else.
B) Working in groups will hamper the involvement/discussion by a quiet trainee.
C) Too much pressure on the quiet trainee to become involved could impact negatively on the quiet trainee's learning.
D) Quiet trainees should be left alone as involvement is not necessary for learning.
Q:
Which of the following statements is correct?
A) To convey a relaxed demeanor, the lecturer should sit behind a desk.
B) Starting a bit late on the first day of training in a multi-day training program is always a bad idea as it reinforces showing up late.
C) The trainer should always have on a suit and tie to portray his/her professionalism.
D) Talkative trainees are more of a problem than quiet trainees.
Q:
_____ are those "and uh," "like," "um" space fillers that are injected into speech.
A) Serendipitous
B) Capitulations
C) Deprecations
D) Dysfluencies
Q:
Which of the following statements is true?
A) Trainers need to use a podium as much as possible to convey professionalism.
B) Use of your hands for gestures while talking detracts from the message.
C) Provide written instructions as well as verbal when possible to avoid misunderstandings.
D) A & C.
E) B & C.
Q:
Good listening skills require practice because
A) We tend to believe we know what a person is going to say and often interrupt.
B) We cannot process information fast enough so when someone is speaking too fast it is very difficult to comprehend what was said.
C) Our hearing is deteriorating because of the noise generated in big cities.
D) Both A & B.
Q:
The experiential learning model, a process for using games and exercises in training, has _____steps.
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Eight
Q:
The experiential learning model begins with
A) A lecturette.
B) Practice.
C) A shared experience.
D) None of the above.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT listed in the text as a way to obtain and maintain trainees' interest?
A) Listening and questioning
B) Use of nonverbal communication
C) Moving around while talking
D) Providing variety
E) All of the above are ways to obtain interest
Q:
Which of the following is true of the icebreaker?
A) It should create energy for the rest of the training.
B) It should reduce trainee anxiety.
C) It should be related to the topic of training.
D) A & B above
E) All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following are included in the "process" part of the implementation phase of the training model?
A) Pilot program
B) Dry run
C) Transfer of training
D) Both A & B
Q:
A _____ is the "first test" of new material designed to be in a training program.
A) Pilot program
B) Dry run
C) Development
D) Primary run
Q:
An ice breaker is
A) A useful way of starting training.
B) Only of value if training is going to last more than one day.
C) Something you do only when trainees do not already know each other; it breaks the ice.
D) The most junior trainer who is in charge of refreshments.
Q:
What is the least expensive and best alternative if you only have a few employees to be trained?
A) Hiring a consultant
B) Purchasing a pre"‘packaged program
C) Implementing and designing your own training program
D) Sending trainees to outside seminars
E) Waiting until you have enough employees who require training, then hiring a consultant
Q:
Hiring a consultant for training might be an option if
A) The training is very specific.
B) The organization needs to get the training done as quickly as possible.
C) The consultant is an expert in a different industry.
D) Constant retraining will be needed.
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding OJT trainers is true?
A) OJT trainers must be currently doing the job to be effective.
B) OJT trainers must be motivated to be trainers.
C) OJT trainers must be the most competent and highest performers.
D) OJT trainers do not need to understand training how to train, just how to do the job effectively.
Q:
According to the text, the skill component of an effective trainer's KSAs is comprised of all BUT which of the following?
A) Interpersonal communication skills
B) Mechanical skills
C) Verbal skills
D) Platform skills
E) Organization skills
Q:
According to the text, the knowledge component of an effective trainer's KSAs is comprised of all BUT which of the following?
A) High level of self"‘efficacy
B) Organization
C) Adult learning process
D) Instructional methods
E) Subject matter
Q:
Which of the following KSAs should a trainer have?
A) Organization skills
B) Interpersonal skills
C) High level of self-efficacy
D) All of the above
Q:
Which of the following seating arrangements is most conducive to switching back and forth between lecturettes and small group activities?
A) The classroom
B) The conference
C) The U"‘shape
D) The circle
E) Tables in a semicircle
Q:
Which of the following seating arrangements is most likely to induce two"‘way communication?
A) The classroom
B) The conference
C) The U"‘shape
D) The circle
E) All of the above
Q:
Which of the following would be a characteristic of an ideal training room?
A) The colors of the walls should be bright and cheerful.
B) A rectangular room is preferred.
C) A room with no windows is preferable.
D) Hardwood floors are preferable.
E) None of the above.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true?
A) Spiral binding should be used for trainee manuals so the pages can be easily turned.
B) If possible, training should be conducted onsite so trainees can keep tabs on what is happening at work.
C) The ideal training room is square shaped.
D) Hardwood floors are ideal as they are easy to keep clean.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true?
A) All the information (exercises, etc.) to be used in training should be in the trainees' training manual, and handed to trainees at the start of training.
B) A training room should have large windows so as to let in lots of natural light.
C) The best seating arrangement for effective training is the U-shape.
D) Off-site training is useful when trainees tend to have a lot of stress associated with going to work.
Q:
A learning point is
A) A useful thing to start training with.
B) A piece of information required to be learned in order to meet a specific training objective.
C) A compilation of the learning objectives for a training program.
D) One of the outputs of the developmental phase of the training model.
Q:
The most effective training method for changing attitudes is
A) Lecture/discussion.
B) Case study.
C) Role reversal role-play.
D) Behavior modeling.
Q:
The "process" for the developmental phase of the training model is
A) Instructional strategy.
B) Instructional methods.
C) Instructional equipment and material.
D) All of the above.
Q:
Describe how ET can facilitate the process of retention.
Q:
What type of training can be undertaken by ET, and describe the effectiveness of ET in terms of utilization of the learning processes (related to Social Learning Theory) " Attention, Retention, and Behavioral Reproduction.
Q:
What are some points that should be taken into consideration when selecting an IM training program?
Q:
What are the differences between interactive multimedia and virtual reality, and why has virtual reality not become as popular?
Q:
____ There is substantial evidence that shows that blended learning is less effective than ET methods.
Q:
____ET has few trainee limitations
Q:
____ET is generally seen as more interesting and motivating than instructor-based training
Q:
____The most important advantage of ET is its control over the content of the material and learning process.
Q:
____Virtual Reality is one of the most popular training technologies today.
Q:
____Virtual Reality training is primarily a 3-D visual on a computer monitor that the trainee interacts with.
Q:
____ Intelligent tutoring systems are able to change the approach to training depending on the responses of the trainee.
Q:
One of the limitations of ET is that
A) It is not effective at modeling behavior.
B) It cannot provide a situation where the trainee applies knowledge.
C) With the exception of virtual reality, it does not provide an opportunity for behavioral reproduction.
D) None of the above.
Q:
Which of the following statements about ET is true?
A) It is effective at getting trainees' attention.
B) It can provide multiple cues in training to facilitate symbolic coding.
C) Its major weakness is in the area of symbolic rehearsal.
D) Both A & B.
E) All of the above are true.
Q:
ET is best at achieving what types of learning objectives?
A) knowledge objectives
B) skill objectives
C) attitude objectives
D) Both A & B
E) All of the above
Q:
Interactive Multimedia training can be used for
A) Almost any training objective.
B) Only declarative and procedural knowledge.
C) Only declarative knowledge and some basic skills.
D) Only declarative, procedural, and strategic knowledge.
Q:
A major concern with ET is that
A) It cannot provide real enough examples in its training.
B) It takes far too long to complete.
C) Trainees do not seem to like learning from a computer.
D) It is difficult to be able to identify exactly who is taking the training.
Q:
The health and safety training programs offered as canned DVD training packages are
A) Extremely expensive and only viable for large organizations.
B) Priced under five hundred dollars.
C) Not deemed appropriate by OSHA.
D) Designed to be integrated with an equal number of lecture hours by trainers.
Q:
For training with a strategic knowledge objective, ______.
A) intelligent tutoring systems are required
B) a content expert instructor is required
C) program instruction is required
D) interactive multimedia is required