Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Human Resource
Q:
In the context of training, what is e-learning?
Q:
What is a request for proposal (RFP) and why is it important?
Q:
Identify three approaches of evaluating the success of a training program.
Q:
What are some of the effective ways of implementing a training program?
Q:
What should managers do to support training?
Q:
Discuss the three elements of a needs assessment process.
Q:
What are the different stages of the instructional design process?
Q:
Compared with other forms of diversity training, which approach do trainees tend to respond to most positively?
A) increasing participants' awareness of cultural and ethnic differences
B) teaching employees skills for constructively handling communication barriers, conflicts, and misunderstandings that normally arise
C) discussing differences in personal and physical characteristics, such as disabilities
D) identifying incidents that discourage people from working up to their full potential
E) discussing promotion opportunities or management decisions that some employees believe were handled unfairly
Q:
What is the main objective of diversity training programs that focus on behavior?
A) to increase participants' awareness of cultural and ethnic differences as well as differences in personal and physical characteristics, such as disabilities
B) to teach employees to be effective at different tasks and roles
C) to send participants directly into communities where they interact with persons from different cultures, races, and nationalities
D) to change organizational policies and individual conduct that inhibit employees' personal growth and productivity
E) to make people aware of cultural differences and stereotypes
Q:
Identify the main purpose of diversity training programs that focus on attitudes.
A) to teach employees not to have any stereotypes about other people
B) to teach employees to be effective at behaviors that inhibit personal growth
C) to change organizational policies that inhibit employees' personal growth and productivity
D) to teach skills for constructively handling inevitable communication barriers and misunderstandings
E) to increase participants' awareness of cultural, ethnic, personal, and physical differences in the workforce
Q:
Par On, a firm that creates games for mobile devices and PCs, has an unusual training program for all its new employees. The program lasts for five days and does not involve doing any work. During this period the trainees, in teams of three, visit different departments, gathering information about the company and various department functions. Additionally, they are paired with more experienced employees to discuss their goals at the company and to learn more about the organization's culture and policies. The form of training used for new employees at Par On is known as
A) onboarding.
B) benchmarking.
C) sensitivity training.
D) diversity training.
E) conditioning.
Q:
Which statement best expresses the reason why orientation programs for new employees are valuable to employers?
A) The federal government requires orientation for all new employees.
B) Employees starting a new job need to become familiar with job tasks and learn the organization's policies and procedures.
C) New employees do not perform sufficient research on their employers before starting work.
D) Employers generally fail to provide a realistic job profile during the selection process.
E) An orientation program is a cost-effective substitute for training programs after an employee has begun work.
Q:
Which form of training prepares employees to perform their jobs effectively, learn about the organization, and establish work relationships?
A) orientation
B) benchmarking
C) sensitivity training
D) bumping
E) conditioning
Q:
The simplest approach to evaluating training is to
A) use only a pretest.
B) calculate the return on investment.
C) conduct pretests and posttests on all trainees.
D) use only a posttest.
E) compare pretest and posttest scores of the trained group with those of an untrained group.
Q:
StrongSkills Consulting tests its salespeople on listening skills and then implements a training program to teach all of them to be better listeners. At the conclusion of the last training session, it conducts a posttest to measure listening skills again. Based on the results, the training manager reports that the training program increased listening skills by a significant amount. Which statement represents the main weakness in the manager's conclusion?
A) The actual impact of the training can only be evaluated by comparing the performance of employees who underwent training and those who did not.
B) The posttest evaluated employees for the same levels of knowledge, skill, and competency as the pretest did.
C) Posttests and pretests are very complex, and StrongSkills Consulting should have used a simpler form of evaluation.
D) The duration of the training was three days, which is comparatively short when compared with the duration of many other training programs.
E) The posttest was conducted immediately after the training program, which is too soon for accurate measurement of learning.
Q:
What is the multiple-hurdle model?
Q:
List three advantages and disadvantages of interviewing.
Q:
What are the different types of interviews that can be used for employee selection?
Q:
Why are drug tests a controversial component of the personnel selection process?
Q:
What are the two broad categories of employment tests?
Q:
Discuss the burden placed on people or organizations contacted as references for job candidates. How do organizations cope with this burden?
Q:
Discuss how the Civil Rights Act of 1991 and the Americans with Disabilities Act impact personnel selection processes.
Q:
Briefly describe how concurrent and predictive validation research is conducted, and identify at least two potential advantages of predictive validation.
Q:
Define what is meant by reliability, validity, and utility in the employment selection context.
Q:
Describe the steps involved in a selection process.
Q:
Ashley, a purchasing manager, tells Franklin, the human resource manager, that she has selected a candidate to be her purchasing assistant. She shows him a draft of an e-mail message offering the candidate the job at the agreed-on starting wage. She asks Franklin if there is anything else she should mention in the message. Franklin replies that Ashley should add information about
A) the work schedule, starting date, and drug test results.
B) the job responsibilities, work schedule, and starting date.
C) the work schedule, starting date, and results of the candidate's medical exam.
D) the job responsibilities and results of the candidate's medical exam.
E) the starting date.
Q:
Leggy High School has three open positions for teachers. The school's HR personnel review rsums to identify the candidates who meet the school's minimum requirements. Next, potential candidates are then invited for interviews. After this, interviewers discuss the results with HR personnel and select a short list of candidates, who then appear before a panel of teachers and HR personnel for the final interview. Leggy's new teachers are then selected from among these finalists. Which terms describes Leggy's method of selection?
A) compensatory model
B) multiple-hurdle model
C) leadership model
D) behavior description model
E) nondirective model
Q:
Which statement best describes the multiple-hurdle model of personnel selection?
A) It is a process of selecting employees in which a very high score on one type of assessment can make up for a low score on another.
B) It is a process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating some candidates at each stage of the selection process.
C) It is a selection process in which several members of an organization form a panel and interview each candidate.
D) It is a testing program that establishes different norms for hiring members of different racial groups.
E) It is a selection process that treats a range of scores as being similar and divides candidates into groups based on the range into which they fall.
Q:
Which statement is true of selection decisions?
A) They should be a simple matter of whom the supervisor likes best.
B) They should be based on the amount of confidence observed in job candidates.
C) They should be based on which candidate best meets the requirements of the position.
D) They should be a simple matter of which candidate will take the lowest offer.
E) They should be based on motivation, not abilities.
Q:
Chad wants to build a start-up company with a small number of people working for him. He decides to do all the hiring himself. Lucas, a friend of Chad's who is a lawyer, warns Chad about the risk of discrimination complaints he could receive from applicants who are not hired. Which statement best expresses the basis of Lucas's concern about avoiding discrimination?
A) Interviews are narrow and standardized, so they do not allow interviewers to test the integrity of interviewees with ease.
B) Interviews are subjective, so they have the potential of assessing candidates based on questions not related to the job.
C) Interviews are situational, so they provide a means to check the accuracy of information provided by the candidate.
D) Interviews are expensive, so their validity and reliability are always in question.
E) Interviews require polygraph tests, which give the interviewer an opportunity to ask questions that can violate the privacy rights of the interviewee.
Q:
Parton Co. is a car manufacturing company that wants to hire a new product manager. Senior management decides to have the department heads for production, sales, and human resources interview the candidates on a variety of topics. This is an example of a(n) ________ interview.
A) behavior description
B) in-basket
C) situational
D) exit
E) panel
Q:
During interviews for medical assistants at the Fairview Medical Center, all the candidates are asked to talk about a situation in the past when they had to empathize with an emotionally unstable person and help that person make rational decisions. This was to test whether the candidates would be able to assist a frantic patient and help him or her make informed decisions. This is known as a(n) ________ interview.
A) unstructured
B) nondirective
C) behavior description
D) physical ability
E) exit
Q:
During interviews for a sales position at Greggor Corp., the interviewer asks each candidate to imagine a situation where a customer e-mails to report that products were damaged during delivery from Greggor Corp. The interviewer then asks each candidate what he or she would do to handle this situation. This is an example of a(n) ________ interview.
A) behavior description
B) situational
C) computerized
D) exit
E) in-basket
Q:
Ross is being interviewed for an entry-level financial analyst position at a well-known asset management company. Ross is asked questions about the current state of the U.S. stock market, the current net worth of certain financial firms, and concepts such as IPOs and mergers from a set of predetermined questions that the interviewer has prepared. This is an example of a(n) ________ interview.
A) structured
B) in-basket
C) work-sample
D) exit
E) nondirective
Q:
Lexie, a marketing manager, regularly interviews candidates for her team. Because Lexie is a people person, and her department is built on teamwork, when she interviews candidates for a job, she tries to get to know the candidates as people. She always begins by saying, "Tell me about yourself," and based on what the candidate says, she lets the conversation unfold for 30 to 60 minutes. How does this approach limit Lexie's effectiveness as an interviewer?
A) By always starting with the same question, she limits the creativity of the candidates.
B) By using this structured approach, she avoids asking the wrong questions.
C) This type of behavior description interview is too focused on behaviors, rather than teamwork.
D) Her method is a panel interview, which has a low validity for a department built on teamwork.
E) The wide latitude of these nondirective interviews can result in low reliability and often poor validity.
Q:
A ________ interview allows interviewer discretion in choosing the questions to be asked and generally includes open-ended questions about the candidate's strengths, weaknesses, career goals, and work experience.
A) behavioral
B) situational
C) nondirective
D) structured
E) computerized
Q:
What is true about medical examinations of job candidates?
A) Medical examinations may not be related to job requirements.
B) Medical examinations are conducted upon the receipt of a candidate's rsum.
C) Medical examinations are conducted specifically for individuals with disabilities.
D) Medical examinations that measure size and strength can never be used for a job.
E) Medical examinations are conducted after a candidate has been given a job offer.
Q:
The human resource department at an accounting firm is preparing a policy for the drug testing of job applicants. Jim makes a list of statements to include in the policy and shows the list to his supervisor, Peggy. Which statement would Peggy direct Jim to change?
A) Drug testing should be administered systematically to all applicants who have applied for the same job.
B) Drug test reports should not be sent to applicants.
C) Drug testing should be conducted for employees working in jobs that involve safety hazards.
D) Drug testing should not be conducted in an intrusive environment.
E) Drug-testing programs should allow for strict confidentiality of results.
Q:
Sarah, a manager at Energy Inc., conducts an interview with Matthew for a job as regional sales manager. During the course of the interview, she has Matthew take a test that assesses Matthew's integrity by asking him about his attitude toward shoplifting and his own experiences with shoplifting, if any. Which test is Sarah conducting?
A) exit test
B) paper-and-pencil honesty test
C) cognitive ability test
D) work sample test
E) in-basket test
Q:
Which test is a legal means to test the integrity of job applicants and generally involves asking applicants directly about their attitudes toward theft and their own experiences with theft?
A) polygraph test
B) paper-and-pencil honesty test
C) cognitive ability test
D) personality inventory test
E) in-basket test
Q:
Moose Tech, a software start-up, is putting together a new team to work on the marketing strategies for their expansion project. In the context of using the "Big Five" personality traits for effective team building, which employees would be good additions to a team that encourages a strong and harmonious culture and is most likely to give the best results?
A) Kelly is very organized; Allison is very cooperative.
B) Liz is not achievement-oriented; Connor is laid-back.
C) Both Nick and Drew are domineering.
D) Both Rebecca and Leann are aggressive and unforgiving.
E) Ryan is emotionally unstable; Tabitha is constantly depressed.
Q:
Identify the traits that are found in a conscientious person.
A) sociable, gregarious, assertive, and talkative
B) dependable, organized, persevering, and achievement-oriented
C) courteous, trusting, good-natured, and tolerant
D) emotionally stable, non-depressed, secure, and content
E) curious, imaginative, artistically sensitive, and broad-minded
Q:
Which of the following is a "Big Five" personality trait?
A) physical ability
B) cognitive ability
C) aptitude
D) extroversion
E) honesty
Q:
Identify the correct statement regarding job performance tests.
A) They provide fair evaluations for applicants.
B) They have the lowest level of validity compared to other tests.
C) These tests are highly generalizable.
D) Customization of these tests for various jobs is inexpensive.
E) They are best suited for identifying the particular skills or traits the individual possesses.
Q:
Which statement is true of an assessment center?
A) It is a place where job applicants for manufacturing jobs undergo physical ability tests.
B) It conducts a single test for all job applicants to test their technical potential.
C) It uses multiple selection methods to rate applicants on their management potential.
D) It is a selection method generally used for unskilled applicants.
E) It has the lowest validity because it combines several assessment methods.
Q:
In-basket tests are examples of ________ tests.
A) job performance
B) physical ability
C) honesty
D) personality
E) cognitive ability
Q:
The controversial practice that treats a range of scores as being similar and thus allows employers to give preference to underrepresented groups within these similar scores is known as
A) banding.
B) generalizing.
C) affirmative action.
D) sensitizing.
E) race norming.
Q:
Identify the limitation of cognitive ability tests.
A) lack of validity of the tests for complex jobs
B) lack of reliable and commercially available tests
C) legal issues related to administering the tests
D) lack of validity of the tests for those jobs that require adaptability
E) relatively high cost of the tests
Q:
Which statement is true about cognitive ability tests?
A) They are especially valid for jobs requiring adaptability.
B) They are relatively expensive compared to the other tests.
C) They measure strength, endurance, psychomotor abilities, and other physical abilities.
D) They are free from legal complications.
E) They are especially valid for simple jobs.
Q:
Tests designed to measure such mental abilities as verbal skills, quantitative skills, and reasoning ability are referred to as ________ tests.
A) job performance
B) honesty
C) personality inventories
D) cognitive ability
E) physical ability
Q:
Julian applies for the position of an emergency direct care worker at San Jose Medical Center. In the last round of the selection process, he has to take part in a testing procedure that simulates an emergency situation. He has to run a half-mile on the treadmill, followed by a step test, a posture test, a squat test, and a weight-lifting test. His performance is timed and his heart rate is monitored throughout the tests. Which test is exemplified in this case?
A) cognitive ability test
B) critical thinking test
C) psychometric test
D) physical ability test
E) achievement test
Q:
Gretchen applies for a data systems operator position in one of the federal governmental agencies. As part of the selection process, she takes a civil services exam that measures her existing knowledge and skills. This scenario exemplifies a(n)
A) psychometric test.
B) critical thinking test.
C) judgment test.
D) aptitude test.
E) achievement test.
Q:
In general, the results of reference checks for job applicants will be most valid if employers
A) contact many references.
B) rely exclusively on the list provided by applicants.
C) avoid direct contact with references.
D) restrict contact with references through e-mails.
E) receive positive opinions about the applicants from their references.
Q:
How can individuals acting as references for job applicants minimize the risk of being sued for defamation or misrepresentation?
A) by giving as much information as possible
B) by exclusively giving out positive information about a candidate
C) by only giving information about observable, job-related behaviors
D) by giving only broad opinions
E) by excluding employment dates and the employee's final salary
Q:
Kevin had a great rsum and a glowing recommendation from his previous employer. Impressed by his qualifications and expertise, Electron Co. hired him for the position of quality analyst. However, he engaged in blatant sexual harassment at Electron after a couple of weeks on the job. During its investigation of the harassment, Electron learned that Kevin had been fired for sexual harassment at his previous employer. If the management of Electron wanted to hold Kevin's previous employer accountable, they could sue the company for
A) misrepresentation.
B) fraud.
C) defamation.
D) negligence.
E) embezzlement.
Q:
If a former employer gives a glowing statement about a candidate and the new employer later learns of misconduct on the part of the employee during his or her previous employment, the new employer may sue the former for
A) negligence.
B) misrepresentation.
C) defamation.
D) misappropriation.
E) libel.
Q:
Robin is a human resource manager at Techtronic, a software company. She receives a call from an HR manager at another software company asking about Megan, a software engineer who used to work at Techtronic and has applied for a job at the caller's company. Robin checks the company's records and sees that a coworker had accused Megan of racial discrimination, but an investigation did not turn up any evidence to support the charge. Megan left the company two months later, saying she was no longer comfortable there. Robin is concerned about sharing the details of this situation with the caller. If telling the information to the caller leads to the other company not hiring Megan, what potentially unlawful behavior could Megan accuse Techtronic of engaging in?
A) misappropriation
B) fraud
C) misrepresentation
D) defamation
E) negligence
Q:
If a person who is a reference gives negative information about a job candidate, there is a chance the candidate will claim ________, meaning the person damaged the applicant's reputation by making statements that cannot be proved truthful.
A) defamation
B) misappropriation
C) fraud
D) misrepresentation
E) negligence
Q:
Generally, an organization checks references
A) only if it believes the information provided by an applicant is incorrect.
B) immediately after an applicant submits a rsum.
C) after it has determined that an applicant is a finalist for a job.
D) because it is a legal requirement under equal employment opportunity laws.
E) because it is an unbiased source of information.
Q:
While applying for the position of administrative assistant, Monica was asked to provide the name and phone number of her previous supervisor. She was also provided the alternative of presenting a letter from her previous supervisor vouching for her performance on the job. Which tool used in the initial selection process is illustrated in this case?
A) application form
B) rsum
C) background checks
D) aptitude tests
E) references
Q:
Review of rsums is most valid when the content of the rsums is evaluated in
A) terms of the elements of a job description.
B) comparison with other applicants' qualifications.
C) terms of the incumbent's competencies.
D) terms of the industrial benchmarks.
E) comparison with other employees in an organization.
Q:
For what purpose do organizations typically review applicant rsums?
A) as a substitute for interviews
B) as a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further
C) as a way to avoid the cost of administering tests related to job performance
D) as a way to control the content of the information and the way it is presented
E) as a way to obtain an objective source of information
Q:
What is a disadvantage of using rsums as a source of information about job applicants?
A) It is a relatively expensive method of gathering information.
B) It does not allow applicants to highlight accomplishments.
C) Review of rsums is least valid when the content of the rsums is evaluated in terms of the elements of a job description.
D) A rsum is biased in favor of the employer.
E) The content of the rsum is controlled by the applicant.
Q:
Identify the detail that can be asked in an application form to gather information about suitable candidates.
A) marital status
B) history of disabilities
C) number of children
D) educational background
E) applicant's race
Q:
Kelsey is filling out an application form for the position of an elementary school teacher. While she is filling it out, she comes across a section that asks for information about her high school and college courses and grades. Which section of the application form is being referred to here?
A) mailing address
B) work experience
C) racial details
D) educational background
E) declaration
Q:
What is a requirement under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986?
A) Employers must verify and maintain records on the legal rights of applicants to work in the United States.
B) Employers must file a completed Form I-9 with the Immigration and Naturalization Service and retain the documents for at least ten years.
C) Employers must pay lower wages to immigrant workers.
D) Employers must verify the legal age of employees who do not hold American citizenship.
E) Employers must ask a potential employee's religion.
Q:
Regal Inc., an investment bank, is in the final stage of its selection process for a business analyst. Donald is one of the desired candidates for the position. As part of background checks, the bank wants to look at his credit history. Which Act requires them to obtain Donald's consent before using a third party to check his credit history?
A) The Civil Rights Act of 1991
B) The Fair Credit Reporting Act
C) The Fair Labor Standards Act
D) The Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act
E) The Consumer Credit Protection Act
Q:
Which law requires employers to make "reasonable accommodation" to incapacitated individuals?
A) The Civil Rights Act of 1991
B) The Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1988
C) The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1991
D) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
E) The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938
Q:
Barbara is interviewing for a paralegal position at one of the biggest law firms in the country. During the interview, she is asked a particular question that she refuses to answer. Frustrated by her behavior, the interviewer repeats the question. She refuses to answer it again and says that it violates her rights under equal employment opportunity law. Which question is she most likely being asked?
A) What is your complete name?
B) What is your ancestry?
C) Can you meet the requirements of strict work schedules?
D) Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
E) What organizations or groups do you belong to that you consider relevant to being able to perform this job?
Q:
Which question is permissible to ask in job applications and interviews?
A) How would you feel about working for someone younger than you?
B) Are you a citizen of the United States?
C) What religious holidays do you observe?
D) Where were you born?
E) Will you need any reasonable accommodation for this hiring process?
Q:
Which action during the selection process would be illegal under the equal employment opportunity laws?
A) asking candidates whether they are able to perform the essential functions of a job
B) asking all candidates whether they have ever worked under a different name
C) asking candidates how close they are to retirement age
D) asking all candidates which schools they have attended
E) asking candidates whether they will need any reasonable accommodation to complete the selection process
Q:
Greater Grocers, an international retailer, opens a store in a town predominantly populated by a particular racial group. While recruiting employees for the store, it uses a test in the selection process that favors that same racial group. When questioned about the selection procedure, the management reasons that the customers are more comfortable with employees of their own race. In the context of the legal standards of selection, what is an accurate statement?
A) Greater Grocers' actions during the selection process do not violate the Civil Rights Act of 1991 or the equal employment opportunity law at all.
B) Though Greater Grocers' selection process violates the Civil Rights Act of 1991, it's justifiable under the equal employment opportunity law.
C) Greater Grocers' selection process is justifiable because the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 requires employers to make reasonable accommodation according to the demographics of a locality.
D) Greater Grocers' actions during the selection process do not violate the Civil Rights Act of 1991, but it violates the equal employment opportunity law.
E) Greater Grocers' actions during the selection process violate the Civil Rights Act of 1991 because customer preference is not a justifiable reason for discriminatory practices.
Q:
Which of the following exemplifies the best use of utility for a selection procedure?
A) Tina's Treats, a suburban diner, spends a lot of time and money recruiting a server.
B) A local gas station has a recruitment procedure that spans four months for the position of a cashier.
C) Fritter Corp., an international investment firm, spends close to a million dollars to hire a renowned economist as its new CEO.
D) Car Care, a local car wash, employs a three-month-long selection procedure for hiring one of its operators.
E) Buffington High School conducts several rounds of interviews to recruit a maintenance worker.
Q:
The extent to which something provides economic value greater than its cost is called its
A) practicality.
B) utility.
C) validity.
D) accountability.
E) reliability.
Q:
Selection methods should accurately predict how well individuals perform, and they should
A) produce information that actually benefits the organization.
B) not cost the company a great deal of money.
C) all be applicable to many different roles in many different locations.
D) only be applicable to the company where they are being used.
E) only be used on current employees with leadership aspirations.
Q:
Christian is the HR manager of Pryor's Printing, a publishing company. He wants to know if a certain test of cognitive ability, used in the advertising industry, can be successfully used in his organization. This scenario suggests that he wants to know if this test is a(n) ________ method.
A) substitutable
B) evaluative
C) practical
D) generalizable
E) nondirective
Q:
A test that is valid in other contexts beyond the context in which it was developed is known as a(n) ________ method.
A) practical
B) generalizable
C) reliable
D) invalid
E) concurrent
Q:
For tests that measure abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership skills, validity would best be established by ________ validation.
A) criterion-related
B) content
C) concurrent
D) construct
E) predictive
Q:
Which statement is true about content validity?
A) It is usually measured on the basis of expert judgment.
B) It indicates how free a measurement is from random errors.
C) It is most suitable for tests that measure abstract qualities.
D) A test that scores high on content validity tends to score low on generalizability.
E) It is useful for tests that measure intelligence and leadership quality.
Q:
Brick-n-Go, a construction firm, is in need of a construction superintendent whose primary responsibilities involve organizing, supervising, and inspecting the work of several subcontractors. Brick-n-Go administers a construction-error recognition test, where an applicant has to enter a shed that has 25 construction errors and has to record as many of these errors as can be detected. What type of validity is being established in this case?
A) concurrent validity
B) construct validity
C) content validity
D) representative validity
E) predictive validity