Q&A Hero

Q: What is a potential problem of job rotation? A) Employees typically develop a short-term perspective on their problems and solutions. B) Employees generally earn less. C) Promotions usually take longer. D) Employees typically develop specialized skills but fail to use them due to quick rotations. E) Job rotation decreases employees' understanding of different company functions.

Q: Job rotation involves A) adding challenges or new responsibilities to an employee's current job. B) moving an employee through a series of job assignments in one or more functional areas of the company. C) allowing an employee to work full-time in a temporary position at another company. D) allowing an employee to switch between two different jobs within the company on a daily or weekly basis. E) assigning an employee to a position with less responsibility and authority.

Q: What is true of job enlargement? A) It is a systematic approach to help an organization modify its core processes to achieve more efficient results. B) It aims at greater productivity through reduced application of mental and physical effort. C) It attempts to motivate employees by giving them the opportunity to use specific skill sets. D) It involves moving employees through a series of job assignments in one or more functional areas. E) It involves adding challenges or new responsibilities to employees' current jobs.

Q: Using job experiences for development assumes that A) development occurs most often when jobs are structured to eliminate challenges. B) development occurs only through promotions. C) development is most likely to occur when the work involves high levels of negative stress. D) development is most likely when an employee's skills do not fully match the skills required. E) development is most likely when an employee already knows how to perform the job.

Q: The combination of relationships, problems, demands, tasks, and other features of an employee's jobs is referred to as A) job appraisals. B) job experiences. C) formal education. D) technical training. E) interpersonal relationships.

Q: Which statement is true about the 360-degree feedback process? A) It involves rating an individual in terms of work-related behaviors. B) It collects a single perspective of a manager's performance. C) It breaks down formal communications about behaviors and skill ratings between employees and their internal and external customers. D) It gives results that can be easily interpreted by anyone. E) It demands very little time from the raters to complete the evaluations.

Q: An employee's tolerance for uncertainty and the ability to get along with others are assessed in A) leaderless group discussions. B) in-basket exercises. C) personality tests. D) role plays. E) interviews.

Q: In ________, a participant takes the part of a manager or employee in a situation involving the skills to be assessed. A) personality tests B) group discussions C) interview sessions D) role-plays E) leaderless group discussions

Q: What is true of in-basket exercises? A) They require teams of five to seven employees to work together to solve assigned problems within a certain time period. B) They are paper-and-pencil tests designed to measure participants' communication styles and skills. C) They simulate the administrative tasks of a manager's job, using a pile of documents for the employee to handle. D) They require participants to take the part of a manager or employee in a situation involving the skills to be assessed. E) They require the use of interest and aptitude tests to evaluate an employee's vocabulary, general mental ability, and reasoning skills.

Q: Which assessment center exercise is being used when a team of five to seven employees is assigned a problem and must work together to solve it within a certain time period? A) interview session B) leaderless group discussion C) role playing D) in-basket exercise E) personality test

Q: The primary use of assessment centers is to identify A) the employees who have the personality characteristics and skills needed for managerial positions. B) the strengths and weaknesses of an organization. C) the decision processes and communication styles that inhibit production. D) the opportunities and threats to an organization. E) the factors that inhibit group performance.

Q: Which statement is true about an assessment center? A) An assessment center is a meeting room where a team of seven to ten employees is assigned a problem and must work together to solve it within a certain time period. B) At an assessment center, multiple raters or evaluators evaluate employees' performance on a number of exercises. C) It is an office that looks into the process of collecting information and providing feedback to employees about their behavior, communication style, or skills. D) At an assessment center, senior managers hold a test that identifies individuals' preferences for source of energy, means of information gathering, way of decision making, and lifestyle. E) It refers to an on-site location where the corporate leaders design a tool that gathers the ratings of a manager's use of the skills associated with success in managing.

Q: Danielle works at a leading restaurant. She is scared of making mistakes at her workplace, so she is very keen on paying attention to details. She also prioritizes quality in her work. In the context of Inscape's DiSC assessment, she would most likely score high in A) steadiness. B) dominance. C) conscientiousness. D) humility. E) influence.

Q: Milton Inc., a software company, conducts Inscape's DiSC inventory assessment to evaluate its employees. The assessment reveals that there are very few employees who are calm, supportive of others, and work far ahead of any deadlines. Which DiSC category applies to the employees described in the scenario? A) influence B) conscientiousness C) steadiness D) dominance E) intelligence

Q: Which category in the DiSC inventory means that a person emphasizes relationships and also displays optimism? A) conscientiousness B) steadiness C) influence D) dominance E) initiative

Q: Pen & Paper Inc., a publishing company, administered the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) assessment to its editorial team and learned that some individuals are drawn toward gathering the facts and details needed for decision making, while others focus more on noticing relations among the facts. Some of the employees enjoy learning this about themselves, but the human resource specialist who administered the assessment cautions them not to use the results to limit their understanding of what they can do. Which statement best explains the need for caution in applying the results of this assessment? A) MBTI scores are mainly useful for measuring job performance. B) MBTI scores are not necessarily valid and reliable. C) MBTI scores should be used for evaluating promotion potential. D) MBTI scores are extremely stable over time. E) The scores show that some individuals are more flexible in their thinking than others.

Q: According to the lifestyle dichotomy of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, individuals with a ________ preference enjoy surprises and dislike deadlines. A) Judging (J) B) Perceiving (P) C) Thinking (T) D) Feeling (F) E) Sensing (S)

Q: The decision-making dimension of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator relates to the A) steps or actions individuals take when making decisions. B) amount of consideration given to others' feelings when making a decision. C) individuals' tendency to be flexible and adaptable. D) confidence and speed with which decisions are reached. E) individuals' interpersonal strength and vitality.

Q: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, what is true of individuals with a Sensing (S) preference? A) They enjoy surprises. B) They tend to rush into decision making. C) They tend to focus less on facts and more on possibilities and relationships among them. D) They focus on interpersonal relationships. E) They tend to gather the facts and details to prepare for a decision.

Q: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, Extroverted types (E) gain energy through A) interpersonal relationships. B) personal thoughts. C) facts and details. D) establishing goals. E) inner feelings.

Q: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, how do Introverted types (I) gain energy? A) by focusing on inner thoughts B) by focusing on interpersonal relationships C) by gathering facts and details D) by focusing less on facts and more on possibilities E) by trying to be objective in making decisions

Q: The energy dichotomy of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator indicates A) the preparations individuals make before making decisions. B) the amount of consideration individuals give to their own and others' values and feelings. C) individuals' degree of introversion or extroversion. D) the hard facts of a situation. E) individuals' tendency to be either flexible or structured.

Q: The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) identifies individuals' preferences for source of energy, means of information gathering, way of decision making, and A) succession planning. B) self-assessment. C) lifestyle. D) value system. E) goal setting.

Q: For assessment to work efficiently, an employee must be A) provided suggestions to improve his or her weak skills. B) evaluated discreetly so the employee does not pretend to be a model employee. C) present on the day the assessment occurs so that results of the feedback will be accurate. D) employed at the organization for at least a year. E) informed that an appraisal can take place at any time during the year.

Q: The process of collecting information and providing feedback to employees about their behavior, communication style, or skills is known as A) requirements analysis. B) data mining. C) assessment. D) counseling. E) quality check.

Q: A sales firm regularly enrolls some of its employees in a six-month marketing course with a leading university. At the end of the course, the employees are able to perform better in the organization. Which method of employee development has the firm used? A) externship B) formal education C) assessment D) interpersonal relationships E) personality test

Q: Jacob, the vice president of Money-Makers, is reviewing the development program for the company's middle managers. He notes that management development includes psychological profiles and mentors, as well as lateral moves to positions that give managers a broader view of the company. Jacob would like to add a component of formal education. Which option could be included in this new component? A) on-the-job training in the basics of managers' current jobs B) opportunities to sign up for sessions with a life coach C) a program of externships at local charities D) workshops involving business games and simulations E) 360-degree feedback

Q: Greene Creations, a popular furniture manufacturer, provides employee support through various workshops on interior design techniques. It also offers three-month courses on various aspects of decorating a home, from suitable paint for a media room to contemporary outdoor furnishings. This adds to employees' existing knowledge and skill sets, helping create customer satisfaction. In this scenario, which approach to employee development is Greene Creations taking? A) assessment B) formal education C) job experiences D) interpersonal relationships E) counseling

Q: What is true of formal education as an approach to employee development? A) Organizations organize formal educational programs at the workplace or off-site to support employee development. B) Formal education includes organization-specific workshops that are open to outsiders as well as employees. C) As a prerequisite to formal education, trainees must enroll in various courses offered by an organization. D) Formal education includes presentations sent out by an organization, which enlist the ethics and policies educating employees from time to time. E) In an organization, formal education involves collating data pertaining to the development of projects.

Q: The four general approaches that companies use for employee development include A) formal education, assessment, job experiences, and interpersonal relationships. B) job rotation, promotion, transfer, and job sharing. C) psychological tests, assessment centers, the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, and performance feedback. D) business games, formal courses, team building, and assessment. E) total quality management, Six Sigma, lean manufacturing, and quality function deployment.

Q: ________ helps employees select development activities that prepare them to meet their career goals. A) Career path B) Training C) Policy analysis D) Job sharing E) Career management

Q: A(n) ________ is a career that frequently changes based on changes in a person's interests, abilities, and values and in the work environment. A) prescribed career B) stable career C) flexible career D) established career E) protean career

Q: Which statement is true of the relationship between training and development? A) Training is future-oriented, while development is focused on one's experiences in the past. B) Training prepares employees for management careers, while development is for learning entry-level skills. C) Participation in training is voluntary, but most organizations require participation in development activities. D) The goal of training is preparation for the current job, while the goal of development is preparation for future job opportunities. E) Training is often an ongoing process, while development tends to be a short-term process.

Q: ________ increases an employee's ability to move into jobs that may not yet exist. A) Development B) Qualification C) Physical appearance D) Personal background E) Ethnic culture

Q: Managers provide for ________, a combination of formal education, job experiences, relationships, and assessment of personality and abilities to help employees prepare for the future of their careers. A) emotional development B) training programs C) employee development D) counseling sessions E) feedback

Q: The development of high-potential employees is usually a very swift process.

Q: Women and minorities often have difficulty finding mentors.

Q: Action planning often involves the preparation of a career development plan.

Q: In a self-assessment, an organization's responsibility is to identify opportunities and areas that need improvement.

Q: Basic career management systems involve the four sequential steps of recruiting, relocation, reality check, and action planning.

Q: Coaches are peers or managers who work with other employees to motivate them, help them develop their skills, and provide them with reinforcement and feedback.

Q: Mentoring programs tend to be very successful when they are compulsory.

Q: Relocation is the most common way to use downward moves for employee development.

Q: An organization can use downward moves as a source of job experience.

Q: Most employee development occurs through formal education programs.

Q: A performance appraisal process must identify causes of an employee's performance discrepancy and develop plans for improving his or her performance.

Q: Research suggests that assessment center ratings are valid for predicting performance, salary level, and career advancement.

Q: Assessment centers are primarily used to identify employees' technical skills.

Q: The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is an assessment tool for behavioral styles based on the works of the psychologist William Marston.

Q: Research on the validity, reliability, and effectiveness of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is inconclusive.

Q: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, individuals with a Feeling (F) preference try always to be objective in making decisions, whereas individuals with a Thinking (T) preference are more subjective.

Q: The most frequent uses of assessment are to identify employees with managerial potential to measure current managers' strengths and weaknesses.

Q: The approaches to employee development fall into four broad categories: formal education, assessment, job experiences, and interpersonal relationships.

Q: A protean career is one that remains constant despite the changes in a person's interests, abilities, and values and in the work environment.

Q: Development implies learning that is not necessarily related to an employee's current job.

Q: What is the most accurate way to evaluate a training program? A) use only a pretest B) conduct pretests, train only part of the employees, then compare the trained employees to the untrained C) conduct pretests and posttests on all untrained employees D) use only a posttest E) check trainees' performance, knowledge, and attitudes only after they have completed the training program

Q: Information such as facts, techniques, and procedures that trainees can recall after training is an example of A) training outcomes. B) transfer of training. C) return on investment on training. D) training credits. E) training improvements.

Q: The stage to prepare for evaluating a training program is A) before the request for proposal is developed. B) when the organization ensures readiness. C) after the program has been developed. D) during the implementation of the program. E) when the program is being developed.

Q: To ensure transfer of training, an organization's training programs should prepare employees to self-manage their use of new skills and behaviors on the job. Which is NOT a way for trainee employees to manage their new skills and behaviors? A) Trainees should identify the positive and negative consequences of using their new skills. B) Trainees should set goals for using skills or behaviors on the job. C) Trainees should set goals for using skills and behaviors on the job. D) Trainees should practice monitoring their use of the new skills and behaviors. E) Trainees should employ their new skills and behaviors perfectly.

Q: ________ requires that employees actually learn the content of the training program and that the necessary conditions are in place for employees to apply what they learned. A) Behavior modeling B) Transfer of training C) Simulation D) Virtual reality E) Action learning

Q: Identify a guideline that helps increase the readability of training materials. A) replace concrete words with abstract words B) combine two or more sentences into one long sentence C) combine two or more paragraphs into one long paragraph D) add checklists and illustrations to clarify the text E) substitute written material for video, hands-on learning, or other nonwritten methods

Q: Michael, the training coordinator at Jaxon Solutions, inspected the written materials for a new training program and concluded that the materials were not very readable. Which condition would most likely lead Michael to this conclusion? A) The training material contained many checklists. B) Most statements of the training materials were limited to simple words. C) The training material was devoid of technical jargon. D) The text of the materials was combined with illustrations. E) The training material consisted of too many long sentences.

Q: In the context of principles of learning, which of the following is defined as the difficulty level of written materials? A) virtual reality B) simulation C) modularity D) action learning E) readability

Q: Gavin and his team, employees of an online retailing company, are being trained on cyber surveillance and user security. As part of their training, they are working to identify a solution to the problem of cyber-phishing and data breaches. Which group-building method is being employed by Gavin's team? A) cross-learning B) action learning C) adventure learning D) virtual reality E) behavior modeling

Q: Bruce heads a waste management firm. Recently, his firm was under scrutiny from environmental organizations. To counter any possible negative claims by these organizations against his company, Bruce assigned five of his junior managers to study the issue and propose plans or initiatives that could make the company appear more environmentally friendly. He also instructed senior managers to mentor their subordinates as they devised new ideas. Which of the following form of team training was applied by Bruce? A) action learning B) adventure learning C) cross-training D) internship E) apprenticeship

Q: Which form of group building gives teams or work groups an actual problem, has them work on solving it and commit to an action plan, and holds them accountable for carrying out the plan? A) virtual reality B) self-directed learning C) action learning D) business games E) simulations

Q: ________ is a team training method that trains a team on how to share information and decisions to obtain the best team performance. A) Behavior modeling B) Experiential program C) Diversity training D) Coordination training E) Simulation

Q: The difference between adventure learning and cross-training is that A) adventure learning is a team activity, while cross-training is an organization-wide activity. B) adventure learning helps team members understand themselves and each other, while cross-training helps team members learn each other's job roles. C) adventure learning focuses on improving job-related skills of employees, while cross-training is focused on a person's behavior. D) adventure learning is easier but more expensive to conduct than cross-training. E) adventure learning is a team program, while cross-training is an experiential program.

Q: Which of the following is an example of the cross-training method? A) Jill, a cashier, is being trained to stock shelves in case there is a shortage of employees. B) Henry, along with his colleagues, participates in a 5K run sponsored by the company. C) Alicia and five other managers analyze a business problem to suggest changes. D) Laura reviews videos of other employees exhibiting certain important behaviors related to the workplace. E) Stan has team members visualize what they have to do to release a new product.

Q: All Natural Grocer hired Tim to maintain inventory records and Jenny to place orders for new inventory when stocks run low. To ensure that the warehouse can continue to function when either is on vacation, the company also trained Tim to place orders and trained Jenny to maintain inventory records. Which training method does this situation illustrate? A) coordination training B) experiential training C) behavior modeling D) cross-training E) action learning

Q: Team training in which team members understand and practice each other's skills so that they are prepared to step in and take another member's place is referred to as A) coordination training. B) experiential training. C) behavior modeling. D) cross-training. E) action learning.

Q: Which work setting is most likely to benefit from team training? A) a technical support call center B) a stock brokerage firm C) a military brigade D) a research laboratory E) a group of school teachers

Q: ________ is a training method that coordinates the performance of individuals who work together to achieve a common goal. A) Simulation B) Internship C) Team training D) Virtual reality E) Apprenticeship

Q: Which of the following is an example of an experiential training method? A) Maggie, a cashier, is being trained to stock shelves in case there is a shortage of employees. B) John and his colleagues take part in a rafting course sponsored by their company. C) Kristin and five other managers are tasked to study a business problem and present recommendations. D) Jason is asked to review videos of other employees exhibiting certain important behaviors related to the workplace. E) Katy uses an online persona to make decisions in game simulations involving job-related situations.

Q: Which form of experiential training is a teamwork and leadership training program that uses challenging, structured outdoor activities? A) behavior modeling B) coordination training C) adventure learning D) cross-training E) action learning

Q: David, the marketing director of an automobile manufacturing company, enrolled a new group of trainees in experiential programs based on the responses evoked during a training session. Which response by the trainees could have resulted in their enrollment in experiential programs? A) The trainees expressed a desire to involve themselves in virtual realities that provided an interactive and three-dimensional learning experience. B) The trainees expressed a desire to partake in training sessions that involved observing the behavior of others and practicing it themselves. C) The trainees expressed a desire to create computer depictions of themselves, which could be manipulated onscreen to play roles as workers in various situations. D) The trainees expressed a desire to evaluate themselves and see the impact of their decisions in a risk-free environment. E) The trainees expressed a desire to be challenged and get out outside of their comfort zone but within limits that kept their motivation strong.

Q: A(n) ________ is a training method in which participants learn concepts and then apply them by simulating the behaviors involved and analyzing the activity, connecting it with real-life situations. A) apprenticeship B) experiential program C) internship D) case study E) audiovisual training program

Q: Behavior modeling is especially useful for improving A) technical skills. B) interpersonal skills. C) spatial skills. D) clerical skills. E) cognitive skills.

Q: ________ involves training sessions in which participants observe other people demonstrating the desired behavior, then have opportunities to practice the behavior themselves. A) Random testing B) Benchmarking C) Behavior modeling D) Experiential training E) Classroom learning

Q: Which statement is TRUE regarding case studies? A) Case studies stimulate learning by actively involving participants and the competitive nature of business. B) Cases encourage trainees by giving them practice in weighing and acting on uncertain outcomes after evaluating a case. C) Trainees play a passive role while being trained with case studies. D) Case studies do not encourage trainees to take risks. E) Training with case studies does not require any interaction among trainees.