Q&A Hero

Q: Explain the hot-stove rule.

Q: What are the legal requirements that must be met by employers to avoid wrongful discharge?

Q: What are involuntary and voluntary turnover?

Q: Discuss the primary sets of people in an organization who affect job satisfaction. What are the reasons a person may be satisfied with these people?

Q: Describe how organizations contribute to employees' job satisfaction and retain key employees by defining the role analysis technique and listing its steps.

Q: Explain what job withdrawal is and discuss the four types of conditions that lead up to it.

Q: Describe alternative dispute resolution, including the most common techniques. Explain its increase in use.

Q: Discuss the principles of justice that are to be followed in a system of disciplining or discharging employees.

Q: ________ can uncover reasons why employees leave and perhaps set the stage for some of them to return. A) Mock interviews B) Job Descriptive Indices C) Pay satisfaction questionnaires D) Exit interviews E) Summary dismissals

Q: A(n) ________ refers to the meeting of a departing employee with the employee's supervisor and/or a human resource specialist to discuss the employee's reasons for leaving. A) exit interview B) affirmative action C) carve-out D) observation interview E) summary dismissal

Q: Which aspect of satisfaction is among those emphasized by the Job Descriptive Index? A) outplacements B) promotions C) skills D) customers E) qualifications

Q: The two types of people in the organization who most affect an individual's job satisfaction are A) subordinates and supervisors. B) supervisors and family members. C) co-workers and subordinates. D) supervisors and co-workers. E) supervisors and upper-level managers.

Q: In the role analysis technique, role occupant refers to A) the person who is hiring the employee for a particular role in the organization. B) the employee who fills a role in the organization. C) the individual who will directly interact with the employee filling a new role in the organization. D) the individual who has written guidelines for a new role in the organization. E) the employee who is assigned the task to write expectations from a new role in the organization.

Q: Venus is concerned about an unacceptable level of job dissatisfaction among a number of work teams in her organization. She has determined that the primary cause of the dissatisfaction is the uncertainty that exists among employees regarding what is expected of them. Based on this limited information, the most appropriate intervention would be A) factor comparison. B) role analysis technique. C) job rotation. D) role carve-out. E) progressive discipline.

Q: The ________ is a process of formally identifying expectations associated with a role. A) role playing method B) role analysis technique C) role carve-out D) role enrichment E) role overload

Q: To improve job satisfaction, organizations can A) make goals easier to obtain. B) make jobs simpler. C) add additional layers to job hierarchy. D) make jobs more complex. E) eliminate all possible distractions.

Q: Employees are satisfied with their jobs as long as they perceive that A) their jobs are the greatest source of happiness. B) their jobs can lead to the obtainment of everything they've ever wanted. C) their jobs meet their important values. D) there are no better employment options available. E) they are doing better than their subordinates.

Q: ________ is a pleasant feeling resulting from the perception that one's job fulfills or allows for the fulfillment of one's important job values. A) Employee engagement B) Fair representation C) Job complexity D) Social support E) Job satisfaction

Q: Low job involvement and low organizational commitment are A) essentially the same thing. B) examples of psychological withdrawal. C) examples of physical withdrawal that are related to job dissatisfaction. D) examples of behavior change. E) examples of physiological withdrawal.

Q: Anita is very dissatisfied with her job situation, but she does not perceive any other employment opportunities, so she stays and spends most of the workday dreaming about non-work matters. What is Anita experiencing? A) physical withdrawal B) psychological job withdrawal C) role overload D) benchmarking E) whistle-blowing

Q: Employee turnover at Wholesome Publishing is low, but many employees in the Children's Book Division seek transfers to other divisions. Which situation is most likely to explain the employees seeking to leave the Children's Book Division? A) The pay structure at Wholesome Publishing is too low. B) Employees consider the manager of the Children's Book Division to be unfair. C) The manager of the Children's Book Division properly channels employees' expressions of dissatisfaction. D) Employees in the Children's Book Division are looking for help from outside Wholesome Publishing. E) Employees' complaints, confrontations, and grievances feel threatening to others.

Q: Eva, an employee at Value Hardware, is regularly late for work and takes excessive sick days. In this scenario, which type of job withdrawal is Eva experiencing? A) behavior change B) physical job withdrawal C) high job involvement D) emotional withdrawal E) psychological job withdrawal

Q: In terms of job dissatisfaction, an employee who calls in sick or arrives to work late is engaging in A) behavior change. B) benchmarking. C) physical job withdrawal. D) whistle-blowing. E) emotional withdrawal.

Q: When employees cannot work with management to make changes, they may engage in ________, taking their charges to the media in the hope that if the public learns about the situation, the organization will be forced to change. A) scapegoating B) progressive discipline C) benchmarking D) media manipulation E) whistle-blowing

Q: Veronica is the supervisor of the recruiting department at Kintex Inc. She is currently in charge of filling a few high-demand positions at Kintex Inc. and is planning to poach talent from rival companies, luring their employees away with job benefits. Drew, the HR head of Kintex Inc., however, argues that Veronica's plan will not work. Which explanation is most likely to strengthen Drew's argument? A) The candidates have very low self-worth. B) Veronica assures the candidates that they will receive a company car. C) Kintex Inc. offers the candidates more vacation time than their current employer. D) Kintex Inc. offers the candidates better health insurance than their current employer. E) The candidates are looking for higher pay, not better benefits.

Q: The amount of income linked to each job is called the A) pay rank. B) pay status. C) pay differential. D) incentive pay. E) pay level.

Q: Adam, an employee at Trite Holdings, decides to leave the company. However, during his exit interview, an HR supervisor learns that Adam had no complaints about the work he did or the pay he received. What would be a source of job dissatisfaction for Adam and likely to lead to his departure? A) Adam's supervisor defined expectations so clearly, there was no role ambiguity. B) Adam worked on a team with employees from different functional units. C) Adam experienced uncivil behavior from his co-workers, and it was not addressed by management. D) Adam's co-workers were unclear about his work methods, scheduling, and performance criteria. E) Trite Holdings focused too much on pay as a source of satisfaction.

Q: Nick, a highly skilled technician, has been one of the most productive employees at Swank Inc. But after the company went through a downsizing effort, Nick has taken on many more responsibilities and is struggling to keep up. What is the most likely consequence of this situation? A) Nick experiences role conflict and becomes confused about what to do. B) Nick experiences role conflict because Swank Inc. asks him to transfer to a position overseas. C) Nick wonders how Swank Inc. will evaluate his performance, so he asks for a transfer. D) Nick experiences role overload and becomes dissatisfied with his job. E) Nick places the responsibility for maintaining positive relationships on his direct supervisor.

Q: After an organization downsizes, it may expect much of its remaining employees. This high expectation and demand occur in a state of role ________ for the employees. A) autonomy B) carve-out C) underload D) distance E) overload

Q: Foreign assignments can be highly disruptive to family members, and the resulting role ________ is the top reason that people quit overseas assignments. A) autonomy B) overload C) underload D) ambiguity E) conflict

Q: Heidi is a single mother who works full-time and attends to the needs of her two young children. She often feels a lot of pressure in balancing her work and looking after her children. What is Heidi experiencing? A) role ambiguity B) role carve-out C) role conflict D) role overload E) role underload

Q: Daniel is an employee at Atex Inc. Recently, he was moved to a new work team to help in the development of a new product. Chris, his supervisor on the new team, describes the set of behaviors that the new team members will expect of Daniel. Daniel, however, feels that these demands contradict the expectations set forth in his previous role at Atex Inc. Which situation is most likely to be the primary source of Daniel's dissatisfaction about his role? A) Atex Inc. has brought together employees from different functions to form a team, leading to conflicting expectations. B) Daniel is involved in Atex Inc.'s grapevine communications channel. C) Daniel is unclear about his work methods because others have different ideas about work processes. D) Atex Inc. has downsized recently, and employees' work is still going through quality checks. E) Daniel is unsure how Atex Inc. will evaluate his performance on this new work team.

Q: Braden was recently told by senior management that they expected him to exercise more authority and leadership with his work group. Just two days prior to that, his team told him that while they appreciated the initiative he demonstrated, they expected him to be less authoritative and more democratic in the future. The term that best describes what Braden is experiencing is A) role carve-out. B) role distance. C) role conflict. D) role underload. E) role autonomy.

Q: ________ is an employee's recognition that demands of the job are incompatible or contradictory. A) Role conflict B) Role overload C) Role underload D) Role ambiguity E) Role autonomy

Q: ________ is uncertainty about what the organization and others expect from the employee in terms of what to do or how to do it. A) Role underload B) Role ambiguity C) Role conflict D) Role overload E) Role autonomy

Q: The aspects of a tasknamely the complexity of the task, the degree of physical strain and exertion required, and the value an employee places on the taskhave particular significance when they are viewed as linked to A) brand alignment. B) job dissatisfaction. C) promotional marketing. D) sole arbitrations. E) mediations.

Q: As a predictor of job dissatisfaction, nothing exceeds A) the nature of the task itself. B) the geographical location of the firm. C) negative affectivity. D) relationships with co-workers. E) negative self-evaluations.

Q: When in situations they dislike, employees with positive core self-evaluation tend to A) experience high job dissatisfaction. B) blame other people for their problems. C) seek change in socially acceptable ways. D) act aggressively toward others. E) experience feelings of anger, guilt, and nervousness more than others.

Q: Choose the correct statement about personal dispositions. A) People with a positive core self-evaluation tend to experience job satisfaction. B) Rather than doing nothing, people with negative core self-evaluations always act aggressively toward the people they blame. C) In general, job turnover is higher among employees who are high in emotional stability and conscientiousness. D) People with negative affectivity tend to be satisfied with their jobs after changing their occupations. E) Core self-evaluations are bottom-line opinions that are positive in nature.

Q: The positive or negative bottom-line views that people have of themselves are known as A) negative affectivities. B) factor comparisons. C) core self-evaluations. D) fair representations. E) behavioral models.

Q: Employees with negative affectivity are inclined to A) experience high job satisfaction. B) experience feelings of anger, contempt, fear, and guilt. C) seek change in socially acceptable ways. D) look for the good in others, but not themselves. E) think highly of themselves, but not others.

Q: ________ means pervasive low levels of satisfaction with all aspects of life, compared with other people's feelings. A) Negative affectivity B) Outplacement C) Expatriation D) Systemic discrimination E) Cognitive dissonance

Q: Which of the following best defines job withdrawal? A) It is the loss of jobs within an organization due to adverse economic forces. B) It is a set of behaviors with which employees try to avoid the work situation physically, mentally, or emotionally. C) It is the retracting of a job offer following the results of a pre-employment physical examination. D) It is a psychological state employees experience upon a job dismissal or retirement. E) It is the retraction of an employment offer following failure to join on an agreed date.

Q: Promoting employee engagement is a way to improve all of the following EXCEPT A) productivity. B) customer service. C) competitive advantage. D) self-evaluations. E) employee retention.

Q: Deepak, a trainee at NextGen Corp., is known among his colleagues for his arrogance, rude behavior, and short-tempered nature. His supervisor, Garin, does not feel like Deepak is performing well and wants to fire him. However, Marissa, the manager of the HR department, advises Garin to rethink his decision in order to avoid the possibility of Deepak reacting violently or filing a lawsuit when he receives the news. In this scenario, which situation is most likely to result in an amicable discharge of Deepak from NextGen Corp.? A) Garin accuses Deepak of substance abuse and warns him to get help or be fired. B) Marissa ask Gavin to give Deepak more training, and if he doesn't perform well, then Gavin can fire him. C) Garin encourages Deepak to think about whether he is a good fit for the job and whether he might want help finding another. D) Garin does not believe in the concept of outcome fairness, so he does not intend to consider Marissa's advice. E) Deepak thinks the source of his troubles at NextGen Corp. is that Garin dislikes him and wants him to fail.

Q: Michelle, a professional counselor, is asked to talk to an ex-employee of GearTech Corp. about his performance issues. Michelle talks to this ex-employee about his grief and fear, as well as some strategies for finding a new job. Which role is Michelle performing? A) CEO of GearTech Corp. B) mediator C) arbitrator D) outplacement counselor E) volunteer at GearTech Corp.'s employee assistance program

Q: Sean has just been discharged from his job after the company he was working for started downsizing. Confused about his state of joblessness, Sean threatens to sue the company for reparations. Which program can help the company avoid such situations from exiting employees? A) outplacement counseling B) employee assistance program C) benchmarking D) progressive disciplining program E) expatriation

Q: OutCode Inc. is an organization that tries to avoid the potential for violence or a lawsuit each time an employee is asked to leave the company. It does this by having the former employees meet with a specialized member of the HR staff to discuss their feelings while also getting help to find a new job. Which strategy does OutCode Inc. use in this scenario? A) an employee assistance program B) outcome fairness C) alternative dispute resolution D) fair representation E) outplacement counseling

Q: Outplacement counseling programs are A) long-distance educational programs using instruction via video or audio tapes or computers provided by the company to augment employee skills. B) services in which professionals try to help dismissed employees manage the transition from one job to another. C) third-party programs to assist employees with their mental health and chemical dependency needs. D) university-sponsored executive training programs that require participants to live on campus while completing short, custom-designed courses. E) services rendered to employees to manage drug or alcohol addiction.

Q: Trevor, an employee of HigherEd Corp., demonstrates a series of unacceptable behaviors. Carmela, his manager, wants to refer Trevor to the company's employee assistance program. Which situation would call for such a referral? A) Carmela has reason to believe Trevor's behavior problems are related to alcohol abuse. B) HigherEd Corp. wants managers to use only the simplest, most direct, and least expensive way to settle behavior problems. C) Carmela wants an experienced and retired judge to resolve Trevor's situation. D) Carmela and Trevor agree that a neutral party from outside the organization should hear this case. E) Trevor wants a panel of his peers to hear Carmela's complaint.

Q: Identify the correct statement regarding an employee assistance program. A) It is a system that supervisors can use to refer their employees for professional treatment when necessary. B) It is a company-sponsored program to help employees manage the transition from one job to another. C) It cannot be recommended by union representatives. D) It involves taking the help of a neutral party though a nonbinding process to solve issues among employees. E) It involves hiring an arbitrator from outside the organization to hear cases or disputes among employees.

Q: Which term refers to a referral service that employees can make use of to pursue professional treatment for emotional problems or substance abuse? A) alternative dispute resolution B) outplacement counseling C) employee assistance program D) progressive discipline program E) request for proposal

Q: Who would be most likely to hear and resolve a case if arbitration is used? A) an immediate supervisor B) a higher-level manager C) a panel of nonmanagement employees D) a peer of the employee E) a retired judge

Q: What is an example of an alternative dispute resolution method? A) carve-out B) employment assistance programs C) benchmarking D) arbitration E) outplacement counseling

Q: Trace, a neutral party outside of Integrated Inc., is helping simplify a conflict between two technical teams of the company. Though Trace's solution has no binding power, both teams decided to accept his solution. This is an example of A) mediation. B) arbitration. C) open-door policy. D) progressive discipline. E) fair representation.

Q: If peer review does not lead to a compromise, a neutral party from outside the organization hears the case and tries to resolve the conflict and attempts to reach a compromise. This process is called A) mediation. B) carve-out. C) open-door policy. D) fair representation. E) attrition.

Q: ________ is a process for resolving disagreements by taking them to a panel composed of representatives from the organization at the same levels as the people in the dispute. A) Outplacement counseling B) Mediation C) Carve-out D) Arbitration E) Peer review

Q: Peer review is an example of A) alternative dispute resolution. B) an employee assistance program. C) outplacement counseling. D) fair representation. E) an employee carve-out.

Q: Based on the expectation that two people in conflict should first try to arrive at a settlement together, organizations have a policy of making managers available to hear complaints. Typically, the first "open door" is that of the employee's A) immediate supervisor. B) choice of a neutral party. C) peers. D) immediate subordinates. E) personal counselor.

Q: What is the simplest, most direct, and least expensive way to settle a dispute? A) benchmarking B) arbitration C) mediation D) open-door policy E) peer review

Q: Which type of alternative dispute resolution functions well only to the extent that employees trust management and managers who hear complaints listen and are able to act? A) mediation B) behavioral modeling C) open-door policy D) fair representation E) peer review system

Q: Open-door policy, peer review, and mediation are methods of A) the strategy decision-making process. B) alternative dispute resolution. C) collective bargaining. D) a fair representation policy. E) performance appraisal.

Q: Elliot, a human resource manager, tells managers in his organization that following the system of progressive discipline requires written documentation at every step of the process. In which situation could this be optional? A) The organization is suspending an employee. B) The manager responds to the second of a series of unacceptable behaviors. C) The manager reminds an employee that a minor first-time offense is against policy. D) The manager decides to dismiss the employee. E) The organization does not follow the principles of the hot-stove rule.

Q: Conducting personal business online during work hours is called A) cybersquatting. B) cyberbullying. C) cyberdefamation. D) cyberstalking. E) cyberslacking.

Q: Who has the main responsibility of developing a formal discipline process for the workplace? A) the human resource department B) outplacement counselors C) the legal department D) the sales force E) arbitrators

Q: With which step does the progressive discipline process end? A) a written warning and a threat of temporary suspension B) an unofficial spoken warning C) an official written warning D) temporary suspension and a written notice E) termination

Q: Gizmo Multimedia Corp. is an organization that follows the process of progressive discipline. The organization communicates with Lyla, an employee, about unacceptable behavior and responds to a series of her offenses. Which step would immediately precede a threat of temporary suspension? A) a letter informing about her demotion B) an unofficial spoken warning C) an official written warning D) a termination letter E) a letter informing Lyla about her transfer

Q: What is a typical first response in the progressive discipline system? A) official spoken warning B) written warning with threat of temporary suspension C) temporary suspension with no written notice D) unofficial spoken warning E) termination

Q: Just Right Construction Company has a system of progressive discipline. Even so, in which situation would it be appropriate for the company to follow a stricter policy and dismiss an employee after a first offense? A) A welder ignored safety procedures and started a fire that caused serious damage. B) The last employee to leave a production area forgot to turn off a hot stove. C) An employee's work quality had been declining for a couple of weeks. D) A manager was late to work twice, setting a bad example. E) A supervisor told a joke that some employees considered offensive.

Q: Which process seeks to avert misbehavior and to correct, rather than merely punish, misbehavior? A) hot-stove rule B) fair representation C) progressive discipline D) benchmarking E) peer review technique

Q: According to the hot-stove rule, which quality makes discipline more effective? A) The punishment meted is always inconsistent. B) The consequences for breaking a rule are immediate. C) The rule breaker will be warned multiple times before termination. D) The consequences follow a gradual increase in seriousness. E) The ideology is to prevent misbehavior rather than to merely punish it.

Q: Which principle of discipline holds that an organization's discipline should give a clear-cut warning and follow up with consistent, objective, and immediate consequences? A) per se rule B) laissez-faire rule C) fundamental attribution rule D) outcome fairness E) hot-stove rule

Q: Discount Furniture has seen sales decline in a highly competitive environment. To be able to offer a lower-cost product, management decides to close its factory in North Carolina, laying off 85 workers from the company's 465-person workforce. Under the Workers' Adjustment Retraining and Notification Act, what must Discount Furniture do? A) It must explain employment-at-will principles to the employees. B) It must give the employees 60 days' notice before it can begin the layoffs. C) It must provide all the employees with exit interviews. D) It is required to seek legal advice to identify any exemptions available. E) It must request employees' consent before releasing their job records.

Q: If employers covered by the ________ do not notify the employees (and their union, if applicable) of layoffs, they may have to offer back pay and fringe benefits and pay penalties as well. A) Davis-Bacon Act B) Workers' Adjustment Retraining and Notification Act C) Right-to-Work Act D) Employee Free Choice Act E) Fair Labor Standards Act

Q: The board of directors of Nature's Crop is worried about company theft and decides to institute an immediate search of the employees on the job. However, the head of the HR department, Lisa, believes that doing so could maximize the likelihood of a lawsuit due to privacy concerns. Which condition would strengthen Lisa's belief? A) if the search is a random one, and it is clarified that no one has been accused of misdeeds B) if the search policies and consequences have been publicized C) if the search is done only after gathering consent from employees D) if the search is done only on employees and not supervisors E) if the search information is shared only with those who need it

Q: After Fran, a human resource manager, hears reports that some employees are drinking liquor on the job, she arranges to conduct a random search for evidence. Which action would be the most appropriate way for Fran's company to act fairly regarding employees' privacy in this scenario? A) requesting consent before gathering information B) confining the search to lower-performing employees C) telling employees the company is accusing them of drinking D) excluding the accusers' work areas from the search E) sharing search results with a reporter who learned about the search

Q: The top management at Lion Manufacturers decides to search its employees on the job. However, Rajat, Lion's HR manager, believes that it could generate privacy issues. Which condition would strengthen Rajat's belief and maximize the likelihood of a lawsuit? A) if the search is done after asking for the employees' consent B) if the search policy is publicized and applied and carried out consistently C) if the search includes random legal and permissible searches of desks, lockers, and toolboxes D) if the search is a random check, and it is clarified that no one has been accused of misdeeds E) if the search involves communications, such as e-mails, that are searched without probable cause

Q: When conducting a workplace search, employers can act fairly and minimize the likelihood of a lawsuit by A) hushing the company's search policies prior to the search. B) searching employees' workplace without their knowledge. C) using non-company personnel to conduct the search. D) conducting random searches with or without a probable cause. E) justifying that the organization has work rules that provide for searches.

Q: Saad was an employee at a chemical company called FGR Inc. He noticed that several of the security personnel at FGR allowed tankers to be filled over the legal limit with highly inflammable gases. Saad gathered ample evidence of such instances and presented it to senior management. A few months later, the company had not acted, and Saad contacted the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. Less than a week later, the company fired Saad. Assuming that Saad had not had disciplinary issues and wanted to file a claim alleging he was wrongfully discharged, what would be the strongest basis for his claim? A) He was disciplined for doing what the law requires. B) He was disciplined for violating public policy. C) His dismissal was a result of racial discrimination. D) His dismissal violated his privacy. E) The company did not provide proper notification of the layoff.

Q: Matt is employed as a supervisor at Total Charge Industries. However, he gets fired from his job when he refuses to break local laws and discharge harmful chemicals from the company's production facility into a nearby river. Matt files a wrongful discharge suit Total Charge Industries. Which exception to the employment-at-will doctrine is Matt likely to choose when filing his suit? A) affirmative action B) reverse discrimination C) implied contract D) information seizure E) public policy