Q&A Hero

Q: What is the minimum percent of employees in a bargaining unit who must sign authorization cards for the National Labor Relations Board to hold a union representation election? A) 30 percent B) 51 percent C) 20 percent D) 10 percent E) 55 percent

Q: Athelia and Annabelle work at Starving Artists Inc. Athelia claims that forming a union can help enhance workers' bargaining power with management. Annabelle, however, argues that it is quite challenging to form a union. Which statement strengthens Annabelle's argument? A) Unionized employees have low negotiating power with the management. B) A union needs to convince a majority of workers to have a common goal. C) Union workers generally have lower productivity than nonunion workers. D) A union's goals must always contradict the employer's goals. E) A union must only include members with highly conceptual skills who can easily deal with conflict resolution.

Q: What is true of how the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) carries out the function of preventing unfair labor practices? A) The deadline for filing a charge is twelve months after the alleged unfair practice. B) The NLRB has no authority to issue cease-and-desist orders to halt unfair labor. C) The board can order the employer to reinstate workers but cannot order them to pay back pay. D) The NLRB is not authorized to set aside the results of an election and must approach the courts for this purpose. E) If an employer or union refuses to comply with an NLRB order, the board has the authority to petition the U.S. Court of Appeals.

Q: Identify the category of employees excluded by the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) from participating in organizing activities. A) employees in multiple facilities within a single employer B) employees covered by multiple employers C) employees with managerial duties D) employees who have been on strike for economic reasons for less than one year and who have been replaced by other employees E) employees who have a community of interest in their wages, hours, and working conditions

Q: The ________ has the authority for certifying or decertifying a union through an election. A) American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations (AFL-CIO) B) Small Business Association (SBA) C) National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) D) Federal Trade Commission (FTC) E) Selective Service System (SSS)

Q: The National Labor Relations Board certifies a union as the exclusive representative of a group of employees when A) the management of an organization approves of a union. B) a union pays its dues to the board. C) at least 51 percent of the employees join the union within a certain time (30 days) after beginning employment. D) a majority of workers vote in favor of a union. E) the American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations votes in favor of a union.

Q: The National Labor Relations Board has two major functions: one is to prevent unfair labor practices, and the other one is to A) conduct periodic onsite inspections of union and company financial records. B) conduct and certify representation elections. C) make rules and regulations for union-management relations. D) levy punitive charges on violators. E) monitor and regulate labor relations in small, local businesses.

Q: Identify the law that regulates unions' actions with reference to their members, including financial disclosure and the conduct of elections. A) the Hatch Act B) the Taft-Hartley Act C) the Landrum-Griffin Act D) the Civil Service Reform Act E) the Maguire Act

Q: Identify the right of employees that is covered under the Taft-Hartley Act. A) the right to nominate candidates for union office B) the right to participate in union meetings and secret-ballot elections C) the right to choose whether they join a union or other group D) the right to examine unions' financial records E) the right to physically block nonstriking employees from entering the workplace

Q: Which statement is true of right-to-work laws? A) They are federal laws that protect employees' right to lifetime employment. B) They are state laws that make union shops, maintenance of membership, and agency shops illegal. C) They are laws that protect the right of unions to insist that the employer hire only union members. D) They are laws that allow terminating an existing contract and striking for a new one without notifying the employer. E) They are federal laws that ensure that all union members get pension benefits.

Q: Which law permits states to pass right-to-work laws? A) the Taft-Hartley Act B) the Sarbanes-Oxley Act C) the Landrum-Griffin D) the Hatch Act E) the Maguire Act

Q: What is an unfair labor practice by unions under the Taft-Hartley Act? A) insisting on provisions that the employer may hire only workers who are union members B) nominating candidates to union office and conducting secret-ballot elections C) going out on strike to secure better working conditions D) refraining from activity on behalf of the union E) joining a union not recognized by the employer

Q: Who among the following is NOT covered by the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)? A) an individual employed as a supervisor B) an individual employed in the service sector C) an individual employed by a private-sector firm with less than 15 full-time employees D) an individual joining a union that is not recognized by his or her employer E) an individual refraining from activity on behalf of the union

Q: Who among the following is covered by the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)? A) a worker employed as a supervisor B) a person working for a parent C) an independent contractor D) a worker employed by an employer subject to the Railway Labor Act E) a worker going out on strike to secure better working conditions

Q: Which federal law, passed in 1935, supports collective bargaining and sets out the rights of employees to form unions? A) Landrum-Griffin Act B) Civil Rights Act C) Wagner Act D) Taft-Hartley Act E) Sarbanes-Oxley Act

Q: The idea that unions benefit people in communities by holding employers accountable for the way they treat workers is an example of a(n) ________ goal. A) management B) union C) industrial D) societal E) economical

Q: ________ rules require that employees who join the union remain members for a certain period of time but do not require a union membership. A) Agency shop B) Union shop C) Closed shop D) Maintenance of membership E) Checkoff provision

Q: Steve is a new employee at Regency Inc. He wants to work for the company, but he has no desire to join the union or even consider the possibility of becoming a member in the future. Which security provision of union membership is most suitable for Steve? A) a closed shop provision, because it gives an employee the right to participate in decision making without becoming a member B) a maintenance of membership provision, because it allows employees to join the union as passive members C) a union shop provision, because it helps an employee use indirect influence to affect management-union contracts D) an agency shop provision, because it requires employees to pay union dues but does not force them to become members E) a checkoff provision, because it requires all the employees of an organization to join the union, regardless of their preferences

Q: Dan is a non-union employee at Lexia Inc. Although he does not intend to join the union at the company, he is still required to pay union dues as part of a union contract with the company. What does this scenario best exemplify? A) an agency shop agreement B) a checkoff provision C) a union shop agreement D) a trade-off provision E) a closed shop agreement

Q: Which of the following is a union security arrangement that requires a person to pay union dues, but is not required to join the union? A) agency shop B) union shop C) closed shop D) maintenance of membership E) checkoff provision

Q: Employees at Harper Industries have formed a union and are negotiating a union security arrangement. Which option would be most favorable to the union and also be legal? A) a closed shop, because any employee hired must be a union member B) an agency shop, because it requires employees to join the union for the length of the contract C) a union shop, because it requires all employees to join the union within 30 days of their start date with the company D) maintenance of membership rules, because they require that union members remain at the company E) free riders, because these let employees benefit from union activities without joining the union

Q: Nevin joins Firebreak Inc. as an executive designer. The HR manager informs him that he will have to join the labor union within a period of 30 days from his start date. In the context of the security provisions related to union membership, Nevin's HR manager is referring to a(n) ________ arrangement. A) closed shop B) maintenance of membership provision C) agency shop D) checkoff provision E) union shop

Q: MaryJo, a job applicant at Sleep Corp., discovers that the job she is applying for requires her to be a union member before being hired. She also learns that this arrangement is illegal under the National Labor Relations Act. In the context of the security provisions related to union membership, this Sleep Corp. has a(n) ________ arrangement. A) open shop B) closed shop C) checkoff provision D) union shop E) agency shop

Q: Mark and his colleagues are members of the union at Newsprint Inc. While negotiating the terms of the labor contract, they request their employer to deduct union dues from their paychecks. This type of contractual arrangement between the two parties is known as a(n) A) agency shop. B) checkoff provision. C) maintenance provision. D) trade-off provision. E) union shop.

Q: Arman joins the human resource department at SmartFuel Inc., where the production workers are represented by a union. Which goal would Arman most likely be expected to work toward in supporting any negotiations with the union? A) discouraging employees from forming a union B) making managers and workers into adversaries C) keeping operations flexible and retaining some control over schedules D) raising the value of workers' compensation package E) ensuring a regular flow of new members into the union

Q: Brayden, a production manager at Helix Inc., is against the idea of forming a union. He believes that unionization may negatively affect the company's profit margins. Which statement best supports Brayden's viewpoint? A) Union workers tend to exhibit lower levels of productivity than nonunion workers. B) Unions are designed to cater to the interests of management rather than to those of employees. C) Unionization tends to reduce the overall costs of labor and operations. D) Forming an employee union will reduce the risk of work stoppages. E) Unionization is associated with higher costs in wages and benefits.

Q: With reference to the impact of unions on company performance, it can be said that companies wishing to become more competitive must A) continually monitor their labor relations strategy. B) prohibit unions. C) actively encourage unions. D) deny collective bargaining rights to their employees. E) pay workers well above market rates.

Q: Employees of Nueroscience Inc. have been working to organize a union. The company's managers wish to maintain nonunion operations, because they believe the union's demands for more generous employee benefits would hurt profits. What evidence could the employees point to in support of the idea that unions are good for business? A) Unions can reduce turnover by giving employees a way to resolve problems. B) Whether unions make employees more productive remains open to question. C) Unions raise wage and benefits costs. D) Evidence has found an association between union coverage and lower profits. E) Unions decrease productivity because of the work rules they insist on.

Q: Strikes are illegal in most states for which class of workers? A) members of the AFL-CIO B) members of craft unions C) members of industrial unions D) federal and state workers E) union stewards

Q: Identify the correct statement about the trends in international union membership. A) In Western Europe, it is common to have union coverage rates of 80 to 90 percent. B) Coverage rates within the United States are much higher than in most other countries. C) U.S. employees tend to have a larger, more formal role in organizational decision making than in Western European countries. D) Worker representatives on boards of directors are much more common in the United States than in Western European countries. E) The union membership rate in the U.S. is second only to that of Denmark.

Q: Which factor has been associated with the decline in union membership? A) high regulation in such areas as workplace safety and equal employment opportunity B) low competition between companies for scarce human resources C) high job growth in the manufacturing sector of the economy D) low costs of unionized labor E) low prospects for growth in the service industry

Q: Kristy, a production manager at Smart Designs, believes that the formation of labor unions may have a negative impact on the performance of a company's stock. Which statement is likely to strengthen Kristy's belief? A) Workers in unionized organizations tend to exhibit lower levels of productivity than workers in nonunion organizations. B) Unionized organizations are often required to pay their workers higher wages and offer them more generous benefits. C) Studies reveal that unions do not have any positive effects on performance measures, such as productivity, profits, and stock performance. D) Unions tend to have a positive impact on the self-esteem of their members. E) The formation of labor unions is likely to lead to conflicts between social and labor union goals.

Q: Identify the right statement regarding the effects of unions on company performance. A) As a result of the type of pay system favored by unions, employees are more inclined to compete than cooperate. B) Most studies show that union workers are less productive than nonunion workers. C) On average, union members receive higher wages and more generous benefits than nonunion workers. D) The introduction of a union invariably results in the employer paying less attention to employee ideas. E) Evidence shows that unions have a large positive effect on profits.

Q: The employees of Fantasy Textiles are concerned about company management overlooking their interests. They decide to form a union to voice their concerns and speak up for their rights. They elect Gino to represent them during negotiations. Gino's new role requires him to ensure that the terms of the labor contract are enforced and that the interests of the union are met. In this context, Gino most likely holds the position of A) business representative. B) chief executive officer. C) stakeholder. D) union trustee. E) union steward.

Q: Most national unions in the United States are linked with the ________, an association that seeks to improve the shared interests of its member unions at the national level. A) National Labor Relations Act (NLRA) B) Society of Modern Trade Workers and the Trade Federation of the States (SMTW-TFS) C) American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations (AFL-CIO) D) Chamber of Commerce (CoC) E) National Association of Manufacturers (NAM)

Q: A difference between an industrial union and a craft union is that only an industrial union A) contains members who have a particular skill or occupation. B) is often responsible for training its members through apprenticeships. C) organizes as many employees in as wide a range of skills as possible. D) represents a particular occupation. E) comprises members who change employers more often.

Q: Britney, a heavy equipment operator, Kristin, an operating engineer, and Sam, a construction mechanic, hail from different parts of the United States. Though they have different occupations, they are all members of the same union. In the context of types of union, Britney, Kristin, and Sam most likely belong to a(n) ________ union. A) international B) industrial C) stewards D) checkoff E) craft

Q: Identify the statement that characterizes an industrial union. A) All the members are in the same occupation. B) Union leaders try to limit the number of members in order to maintain high wages. C) Members are linked by their work in a particular industry. D) Members change employers more frequently than in other types of unions. E) It is responsible for training its members through apprenticeships.

Q: What is true of a craft union? A) It represents many different occupations. B) Membership in the union is the result of working for a particular employer in the industry. C) Changing employers is not very common. D) It is often responsible for training members through apprenticeships. E) It consists of members who are linked by their work in a particular industry.

Q: The United Association of Plumbers and Pipefitters is a labor union that seeks to unite plumbers and pipefitters from around the country. The members of this union exhibit the same set of skills and are proficient in relatively similar tasks. Such an association is most likely an example of a(n) A) craft union. B) industrial union. C) local union D) business union. E) vertical union.

Q: Alfonso, the union steward at Fizzy Soda, is attempting to persuade members of management to make certain revisions to the company's policies on job security and work rules on behalf of the union. The union believes that company management has neglected these aspects of the company's administration system for too long. Which level of decisions is Alfonso most likely concerned with in this scenario? A) forming labor relations strategies B) administering agreements C) negotiating contracts D) terminating contracts E) forming dissociation strategies

Q: A labor union in which all of the members have a particular skill or occupation is known as a(n) ________ union. A) common B) industrial C) craft D) regional E) employer's

Q: Antonio, a new supervisor at Fresh Food Inc., is being trained on skills that managers and union leaders require to encourage employee-management cooperation. He is learning the different ways of dealing with employee-management conflicts and how to resolve situations in ways that benefit both parties. In the context of labor management, Antonio is receiving training on A) checkoff provisions. B) right-to-work laws. C) maintenance of membership. D) labor relations. E) corporate campaigns.

Q: When employees in an organization have reason to believe that the management is overlooking their needs and interests, they are likely to respond by collectively forming A) partnerships. B) bureaus. C) trade associations. D) labor unions. E) interest groups.

Q: Cooperation between labor and management may feature employee involvement in decision making and self-managing employer teams.

Q: Under the National Labor Relations Act, the union has a duty of fair representation, meaning that the union must provide equal representation to all members of the bargaining unit, whether or not they actually belong to the union.

Q: Courts generally avoid reviewing arbitrators' decisions and focus only on whether the grievance involved an issue that is subject to arbitration under the contract.

Q: Contract administration includes carrying out the terms of the agreement and resolving conflicts over interpretation or violation of the agreement.

Q: Mediation is the most formal and least used method of conflict resolution.

Q: During a strike, the employer loses production unless it can hire replacement workers, and even then, productivity may be reduced.

Q: Preparation, in collective bargaining, includes establishing objectives for the contract, reviewing the old contract, and gathering data.

Q: In a company that wants to prevent a union from organizing its workers, the human resource department should encourage supervisors to promise employees that they will receive an extra day off if they don't support the unionization effort.

Q: When a union and employer negotiate a contract, they cannot bar outside parties from holding an election for more than three years.

Q: If at least 30 percent of an organization's employees sign an authorization card, the union may request that the employer voluntarily recognize the union.

Q: Right-to-work laws grant both the employee and employer the right to terminate the employment relationship at any time with or without cause or notice.

Q: Originally, the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA) did not contain a list of any unfair labor practices by unions.

Q: Joining a union, whether recognized by the employer or not, is an activity protected under the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA).

Q: Under a checkoff provision, a person must be a union member before being hired.

Q: In their labor relations, managers prefer to increase wages and benefits and to give maximum control to workers over work rules and schedules.

Q: Most studies have found that union workers are more productive than nonunion workers.

Q: Unlike union membership for workers in businesses, union membership among government workers has remained strong.

Q: On average, unionized workers receive lower pay than their nonunionized counterparts.

Q: A union steward is a person hired by an organization's management to monitor union activity and report violations, if any.

Q: A craft union's bargaining power depends greatly on the control it can exercise over the supply of its workers.

Q: Sick leave programs A) must be provided by all employers according to the law. B) are based solely on the age of employees. C) pay employees for days not worked due to illness. D) are mandatory forms of unpaid leave. E) are forms of floating holidays.

Q: In the United States, what is the legal requirement for giving employees paid vacation? A) Paid vacation must take place on specified days in addition to holidays. B) Employers must give the amount of paid vacation that makes economic sense. C) Employers must give employees 10 paid vacation days each year. D) New employees must receive 25 or 30 days off. E) Employers decide on paid time off; there is no minimum.

Q: Yang, the HR manager at a start-up company, helped the founder plan a benefits package that includes paid vacations, holidays, and sick leave. Now an employee approaches Yang to say she has been called up for jury duty and needs to be away next week. What should Yang do? A) He should direct the employee to use the Family and Medical Leave Act. B) He should forbid the employee from taking time off for jury duty. C) He should ask the employee to use her sick leave for jury duty. D) He should ask the employee to use her vacation time for jury duty. E) He should establish, and then apply, policies for other situations requiring time off.

Q: Which act requires companies with more 50 full-time employees to provide health insurance or face a penalty? A) Social Security Act. B) Employee Retirement Income Security Act. C) Family and Medical Leave Act. D) Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act. E) Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act.

Q: Under the Family and Medical Leave Act, which criteria makes employees eligible to take unpaid family leave? A) They should be working for an organization with 50 or more employees within a 75-mile radius. B) They should be working at least 15 hours per week. C) They should have worked for the employer for more than 5 years. D) They should belong to the top 10 percent of highest paid executives. E) They should be working for an organization with at least 100 employees.

Q: Eleanor, who is pregnant, works for an organization with more than 100 employees. She lives 20 miles away from work. By federal law, she is entitled to ________ of unpaid leave after her child is born. A) 12 days B) 56 days C) 12 weeks D) 30 weeks E) 11 months

Q: What is a similarity between unemployment insurance benefits and workers' compensation benefits? A) Both of the programs are funded by the federal taxes on employees. B) Both of the programs' costs depend on the organization's experience ratings. C) Both of the programs have the same funding costs across the states. D) Both of the programs replace the same percentage of an individual's previous earnings. E) Both of the programs provide the same amount of compensation to the employees.

Q: In which situation do workers become eligible for unemployment benefits? A) when they have worked only for a few days B) when they are out of work because they are sick C) when they are discharged because of willful misconduct D) when they are actively seeking work E) when they are out of work because of a labor dispute

Q: What is a true of unemployment insurance? A) It provides payments to offset lost income during voluntary unemployment. B) Most funding for unemployment insurance is provided by employees. C) Unfavorable experience ratings of employers lead to higher premiums. D) Costs for unemployment insurance are standard across the country. E) It is a voluntary program based on number of employers in a specific state.

Q: Two management students, Gunther and Jake, discuss the pros and cons of employee benefits. Gunther states that unemployment insurance is more advantageous to employees than it is to employers, while Jake argues that employers receive more rewards from it. Which statement weakens Jake's argument? A) Unemployment insurance provides employers a competitive advantage in the talent market. B) The amount of an employer's unemployment insurance tax depends on the number of employees. C) Federal and state taxes paid by employers fund most of unemployment insurance. D) Unemployment insurance does not provide assistance to unemployed workers looking for new jobs. E) Unemployment insurance does not include payments to offset lost income during voluntary unemployment.

Q: Chad finds that he meets the eligibility requirements for Social Security. He elects to receive retirement benefits at 62. Which statement is true? A) He will receive full retirement benefits. B) He will receive retirement benefits only according to his earnings history. C) He will not be eligible for worker's compensation. D) He will receive benefits at a permanently reduced level. E) His exempt amount limits will be lifted.

Q: What is characteristic of benefits required by the Social Security Act? A) Workers receive no benefits until they reach the full retirement age. B) Workers are compensated according to their past earnings and retirement age. C) Workers receive increased benefits when they earn more than the exempt amount. D) The cost of the program is borne entirely by the employers, who pay a payroll tax. E) The program benefits persons who are financially dependent on current workers.

Q: Toby is an engineer at a paint manufacturing company. However, a chemical spill at the factory caused an accident that left him permanently disabled. Which program is specifically designed to help employees like Toby? A) unqualified retirement plan B) vested-benefit plan C) Social Security D) defined-benefit plan E) work-sharing plan

Q: What is an advantage of providing benefits instead of cash compensation? A) It is simpler to pay compensation in benefits than in cash. B) Benefits give greater control to employees over cash compensation. C) All companies that provide benefits become eligible for tax breaks by state and federal agencies. D) Younger employees place more importance on benefits than cash compensation. E) Employers can assemble creative benefits packages that give them a competitive advantage.

Q: As Monty Corp., a shoe manufacturer, grows more profitable, it wants to become more competitive as an employer in the labor market. Juliet, the human resource manager, urges the company to develop a more attractive package of benefits, rather than simply raising salaries. Which statement best supports Juliet's argument? A) Employees do not pay income taxes on most benefits they receive. B) Benefits are harder for employees to understand than pay structures. C) Employees could get a better deal if they bought their own insurance policies. D) Higher cash compensation gives employees more purchasing power. E) Different employees look for different types of benefits.

Q: On average, out of every dollar spent by a company on employee compensation, more than ________ cents goes to employee benefits. A) 75 B) 30 C) 50 D) 15 E) 20