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Q:
The relationship which suggests that first-line supervisors should have authority for resolving grievances at the first step of the procedure to give the employee a prompt response is called a:
a. Power relationship.
b. Empathetic relationship.
c. Codified relationship.
d. Dependent relationship.
e. Grievance relationship.
Q:
Which of the following might indicate that unions have not fulfilled their fair representation obligations?
a. Keeping member informed about an arbitration award that affects members seniority rights.
b. Providing adequate defense of the grievant at an arbitration hearing.
c. Informing the grievant that the union accepted a different remedy than that asked for by the grievant.
d. Delaying grievance processing until the time limits in the grievance procedure have expired.
e. Including the duty of fair representation in union steward training programs.
Q:
What percent of collective bargaining agreements contain mediation as a step in the grievance procedure?
a. 2 percent.
b. 4 percent.
c. 20 percent.
d. 27 percent.
e. 60 percent.
Q:
A Supreme Court decision related to judicial examination of union performance stressed that:
a. Stiff fines will be paid by anyone associated with a fair representation violation.
b. "Wide latitude" should be given to union officials to perform their duties.
c. Arbitrators are better than the courts in assessing breaches of fair representation.
d. Perfunctory conduct of a union does not constitute a breach of fair representation.
e. Arbitrators are better than the courts in assessing breaches of fair representation, but stiff fines will be paid by anyone associated with a fair representation violation.
Q:
During which step of grievance procedure do the parties negotiate the inclusion of an alternative dispute resolution (ADR) provision which provides for the assistance of a neutral third party?
a. The first step.
b. The second step.
c. The arbitration step.
d. The third step.
e. The fourth step.
Q:
In fair representation cases, the burden of proof of establishing that the union breached its fair representation obligation in on:
a. The employee.
b. The union.
c. The employer.
d. The government.
e. The industrial relations representative.
Q:
During which step of grievance procedure are the labor relations manager and other management officials involved?
a. The first step.
b. The second step.
c. The arbitration step.
d. The third step.
e. The fourth step.
Q:
The swapping of grievances:
a. Occurs before the first step in the grievance procedure.
b. Occurs just prior to arbitration.
c. Occurs after the first step and before the second step in the grievance procedure.
d. Occurs after the second step and before the third step in the grievance procedure.
e. Occurs after the fourth step in the grievance procedure.
Q:
The second step written grievance answer is usually furnished by the:
a. The industrial relations representative.
b. Union steward.
c. First-line supervisor.
d. The plant manager.
e. The international union representative.
Q:
During the third and one-half step meetings in the grievance procedure:
a. The arbitrator is given two separate chances to hear the grievance.
b. The supervisors are encouraged to resolve grievances at the lower level.
c. The union is discouraged from solving grievances.
d. Management and union representatives meet to discuss several grievances which are scheduled for arbitration.
e. All grievances are heard and decided upon.
Q:
During which step of grievance procedure are the union grievance committee members and managements labor relations representative brought in to discuss the supervisors first-step grievance answer?
a. The first step.
b. The second step.
c. The arbitration step.
d. The third step.
e. The fourth step.
Q:
A process to resolve grievances with the assistance of a neutral third party is called:
a. Empathetic resolution.
b. Codified resolution.
c. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR).
d. Power resolution.
e. Grievance resolution.
Q:
First line supervisor answers employee grievance in writing. Which step of a typical grievance procedure is this an example of?
a. Physical evidence.
b. Documentary evidence.
c. Demonstrative evidence.
d. Video evidence.
e. Testimonial evidence.
Q:
The relationship which occurs between individuals when each is aware of the others position and is guided by an understanding appreciation is called the:
a. Power relationship.
b. Empathetic relationship.
c. Codified relationship.
d. Dependent relationship.
e. Common relationship.
Q:
The employee (with or without the union steward) discusses the alleged grievance with his or her first-line supervisor. Which step of a typical grievance procedure is this an example of?
a. The first step
b. The second step
c. The arbitration
d. The third step
e. The fourth step
Q:
The procedures which vary in terms of steps, time limits for processing, and participants, can raise several administrative complexities and often appear inflexible, although they also serve as the arena for the dynamic social relationships between management and union officials, are called:
a. Open-door procedures.
b. Peer review procedures.
c. Codified procedures.
d. Grievance procedures.
e. Neutral evaluation procedures.
Q:
Grievance procedures in nonunion firms:
a. Are non-existent.
b. Do not frequently have an employee's grievance decided by a third-party neutral.
c. Usually have arbitration as its final step.
d. Permit the use of wildcat strikes among dissatisfied employees.
e. Usually have arbitration as its final step and permit the use of wildcat strikes among dissatisfied employees.
Q:
The AFL-CIO Manual for Shop Stewards strongly urges union stewards to present their grievances directly to whom?
a. Union representative.
b. Regional supervisor
c. First-line supervisor.
d. Administrative supervisor.
e. Human resources supervisor.
Q:
A supervisor who believes an employee's grievance is not a contractual violation should:
a. Accept the employee's grievance, and then answer the grievance in accordance with provisions of the labor agreement.
b. Assist the employee in writing the grievance so that it conforms to the specifications of the grievance form and the labor agreement.
c. Refuse to accept the employee's grievance.
d. Consult with the union shop steward and demand proof of a contractual violation.
e. Consult with the companys labor attorney before accepting the grievance.
Q:
The union steward and first-line supervisor both compete for the grievant's attention. Which one of the following relationships between the union steward and the first line supervisor best applies?
a. Power relationship.
b. Empathetic relationship.
c. Codified relationship.
d. Dependent relationship.
e. Sympathetic relationship.
Q:
Empathetic relationships occur between individuals when each is aware of the others position and is guided by an understanding appreciation.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Codified relationships stress the rights and privileges of union stewards and first-line supervisors established through the labor agreement and various union and management publications.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The goal of directive or results-oriented mediation is to bring the parties to a certain agreement that the mediator believes is the final word.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Conflicting power relationships develop in situations where the supervisor and union stewards pursue the same interests or goals.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Employees who file grievances are older, more active in their unions, and more satisfied with their job, supervisor, and union.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Unions must be careful because swapping grievances that are clearly meritorious may constitute a violation of the unions duty of fair representation.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Power relationships typically begin when both steward and supervisor are encouraged by their superiors to be attentive to problems in the department.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Written grievances tend to increase emotions present in many employee concerns.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The union's fair representation obligation requires the union to take a grievance to arbitration if the grievant so requests.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Employers are not typically concerned about the fair representation issue since the union assumes full liability when it breaches this obligation.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A union satisfies its fair representation obligation if it demonstrates that it considered the interests of all members and takes its ultimate position honestly, in good faith, and without hostility or arbitrary discrimination.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The third-and-one-half step in the grievance procedure is settled "without prejudice to either party's position," thereby increasing the likelihood of subsequent grievances on the issue.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Employees who file a grievance for termination are entitled to a jury trial if monetary losses (back pay) are claimed.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Management should deny an employee's grievance if they believe the employee is merely trying to get something for nothing.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The Labor-Management Relations Act (LMRA) containd explicit provisions obligating the union to represent fairly all bargaining unit employees.
a. True
b. False
Q:
An important principle of contract administration is that the first-line supervisor and union steward are organizational "equals" in grievance handling.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Employees seldom file a grievance to protest a contractual violation since negotiators are usually concerned about the precision of every labor agreement provision.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Grievance mediation is a process in which an outside neutral assists the parties in resolving grievances without the use of arbitration.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In unionized firms, employees often have unique concerns that are neither addressed in collective bargaining nor explicitly covered in the labor agreement.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A common union tactic is to file several grievances over a particular issue to buttress and document union demands during negotiation of the subsequent labor agreement.
a. True
b. False
Q:
When labor and management officials negotiate a labor agreement, they are mainly concerned with agreement over the minor issues.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Regardless of motives for filing grievances, management must process them through the grievance procedure even if it feels the employees motives are illegitimate or improper.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Placing grievances down in writing creates a written record and increases the likelihood that the employee or union representative is serious about the grievance.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In nonunion settings, the authority of managerial policies and actions often goes unchallenged.
a. True
b. False
Q:
"Codified relationship" encourages the union steward to bypass the first-line supervisor in the grievance process.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The statement of position which permits entrances to the work site to be clearly marked for the exclusive use of either a primary employer or neutral, secondary employer and their employees, customers, and suppliers is called the:
a. Reserve gate doctrine.
b. General Electric doctrine.
c. Merged product doctrine.
d. Laidlaw-Fleetwood doctrine.
e. Moore Dry Dock doctrine.
Q:
The statement of position which establishes some guidelines for lawful picketing at a common site of a labor dispute is the:
Reserve gate doctrine.
a. Reserve gate doctrine.
b. General Electric doctrine.
c. Merged product doctrine.
d. Laidlaw-Fleetwood doctrine.
e. Moore Dry Dock doctrine.
Q:
The statement of position which establishes the conditions under which a primary employer could lawfully establish a gate on the primary employers property reserved for the exclusive use of a neutral, secondary employer hired to perform work for the primary employer is called the:
a. Reserve gate doctrine.
b. General Electric doctrine.
c. Merged product doctrine.
d. Laidlaw-Fleetwood doctrine.
e. Moore Dry Dock doctrine.
Q:
The statement of position which involves the exception to a unions right to engage in product picketing when the primary employer product being struck is very intertwined with a neutral, secondary employer is called the:
a. Reserve gate doctrine.
b. General Electric doctrine.
c. Merged product doctrine.
d. Laidlaw-Fleetwood doctrine.
e. Moore Dry Dock doctrine.
Q:
The statement of position which states that the employer must fill any permanent vacancy occurring in a bargaining unit position thereafter by first offering the job vacancy to a qualified individual on the preferential recall list before offering the job to an a job applicant not on the preferential recall list is called the:
a. Reserve gate doctrine.
b. General Electric doctrine.
c. Merged product doctrine.
d. Laidlaw-Fleetwood doctrine.
e. Moore Dry Dock doctrine.
Q:
Factors that might affect what constitutes a reasonable time period for recall to work by economic strikers do not include:
a. Future probability that new job openings may occur over some extended time period.
b. Historical data on normal employee attrition rates.
c. The percentage of total employees eligible for recall who were actually recalled during the negotiated time limit.
d. Geographical location of plant.
e. Voluntary turnover.
Q:
The form of interest arbitration that restricts an arbitrators authority to settle an interest dispute by requiring the selection of either the employers or unions final proposal on all issues in dispute.
a. Grievance arbitration
b. Fact-finding arbitration
c. Final-offer total package (FOTP).
d. Med-Arb arbitration.
e. Final-offer total package arbitration
Q:
The most common form of a partial strike, where employees work to rule follow every detail of prescribed work processes, which often steps back the normal pace of workflow is the:
a. Strategic strike.
b. Smart strike.
c. Product strike.
d. Realism strike.
e. Work slowdown.
Q:
A work stoppage by employees who have no dispute with their own employer but are striking to support another bargaining unit of their employer or a union representing employees of another employer is called a:
a. Grievance strike.
b. Wildcat strike.
c. Partial strike.
d. Sympathy strike.
e. Protest strike.
Q:
The type of arbitration which involves the selection of a neutral person or panel to hear the bargaining positions of the parties and make a final and binding decision on the inclusions of a negotiated agreement is called:
a. Face-saving arbitration
b. Interest arbitration.
c. Win-win arbitration.
d. Mediation.
e. Conciliation service arbitration.
Q:
The procedure where both parties and a neutral party such a fact-finding panel suggest settlements is called:
a. Tri-offer arbitration.
b. Fact finding arbitration.
c. Interest (contract arbitration)
d. Med-Arb arbitration.
e. Grievance mediation
Q:
Which of the following is NOTa reason why an employer would refrain from hiring replacement workers during a strike?
a. Insufficient time to train new employees.
b. The potential cost of court suits.
c. Disallowed by union regulations.
d. Tension and possibly violence at the picket line between strikers and replacements.
e. Guaranteed back pay for strikers.
Q:
A semijudicial process used primarily in the public sector to gather facts about a labor dispute for the purpose of publishing a public report containing the fact-finders conclusions is called:
a. Information review.
b. Interest arbitration.
c. Code of Conduct.
d. Taft-Hartley Act.
e. Fact-finding.
Q:
During a strike, who has the most effect upon a striker's behavior and attitudes?
a. Manager
b. Spouse
c. Union leader
d. Employees subordinates.
e. Employees co-workers.
Q:
The main difference between mediation and arbitration is that in mediation:
a. Mediators appointed by government agencies.
b. Third-party neutrals are utilized.
c. There is no final and binding decision.
d. The meetings where the parties present their issues to the neutral party are different.
e. Arbitrators are appointed by the President.
Q:
A strike is not entered into lightly by an employee. Which of the following items is least likely to be considered?
a. What will other people think of me?
b. Is the objective worth the cost?
c. What is my expense of participation?
d. What are the legal ramifications?
e. Will I keep my job?
Q:
In relation to a mediator, an arbitrator has:
a. More power and more responsibility.
b. Less power, but more flexibility.
c. More power and greater innovation.
d. Less power and more appeal.
e. Less power and less flexibility.
Q:
Each of the following is listed as a major factor that could cause a strike, except one. Which one is not a major factor?
a. Employees feeling that wages should be higher
b. Rank and file disagreement with union leadership
c. Misperception between bargaining parties
d. A unilateral change by management
e. Reduction in benefits.
Q:
All but one of the following ways are used by mediators to apply pressure in a bargaining session. Which one is not applied?
a. Using delays and deadlines
b. Siding with one party over the other.
c. Engaging in marathon bargaining sessions
d. Placing responsibility on the parties involved.
e. No need by mediators to apply pressure in a bargaining session.
Q:
The employer in a labor dispute with whom the striking employees (union) have a dispute and has the ability to end the dispute is called the:
a. Primary employer
b. Management bargaining team
c. Secondary Employer.
d. Main employer.
e. National employer.
Q:
One advantage of conventional interest arbitration is that:
a. It may cause a narcotic effect, making the two parties more likely to turn to arbitration to settle other disputes in the future.
b. It reduces the cost of not reaching agreement, thereby causing a chilling effect on the parties incentive to reach an agreement.
c. It affords the arbitrator the least degree of flexibility to determine an appropriate settlement outcome, opening the door to arbitration.
d. It affords the arbitrator the greatest degree of flexibility to determine an appropriate settlement outcome.
e. Anticipating arbitration may change psychology of how bargaining teams bargain.
Q:
The type of strike which occurs in violation of an existing no-strike clause in a labor agreement and often without the approval of union officials is called:
a. General strike.
b. National strike.
c. Sit-down strike.
d. Picketing.
e. Wildcat strike.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an impasse resolution procedure?
a. Interest arbitration
b. Mediation
c. Fact-finding
d. Interest disputation
e. Conventional interest arbitration.
Q:
The form of interest arbitration that restricts an arbitrators authority to settle an interest dispute by requiring the selection of either the employers or unions final proposal on all issues in dispute is called:
a. Split-the difference ruling.
b. Issue-by-issue arbitration.
c. Fact-finding arbitration.
d. Final-offer total package (FOTP).
e. Mediation-Arbitration (Med-Arb).
Q:
At the end of the 80-day injunction under the National Emergency Procedures of the LMRA, the president is authorized to:
a. Direct the Attorney General to have all violators arrested.
b. Direct the seizure of the industry.
c. Report to Congress.
d. Declare the strike or lockout illegal.
e. Negotiate for 30 days.
Q:
A wildcat strike is a work stoppage by employees who have no dispute with their own employer but are striking to support another bargaining unit of their employer.
a. True
b. False
Q:
An economic recession is one factor which discourages employees from risking possible job loss through the exercise of their right to strike.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Under no circumstances is an employer allowed to operate during a strike.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Strikes or lockouts that have an adverse effect on the national interest may be declared national emergency disputes.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Mediators must work by a predetermined set of rules in order to successfully resolve differences.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A mediator functions more as an invited guest who can be required to leave if one or both bargaining parties no longer desire the mediators continued involvement in the bargaining process.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Picket signs must clearly identify the primary employer as the target of the picket activity and only urge a boycott of the primary employers products or services, not a total boycott of all products or services sold by the neutral, secondary employer.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The "reserve gate" doctrine involves the establishment of an exclusive gate for entry and exit of all employees on strike.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Work stoppages in the United States since 1982 have been at or near historic higher levels in terms of numbers of strikes, employees involved, and days idled.
a. True
b. False
Q:
An unfair labor practice strike is a strike in reaction to an employers refusal to bargain in good faith with the union.
a. True
b. False