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Q:
In Australia, the Workplace Relations Act of 1996 (WRA) introduced individual contracts called Australian Workplace Agreements (AWAs) which enhanced choice by placing individual and collective agreements on an equal footing.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Hourly compensation costs for manufacturing production workers in Belgium, Germany, Denmark, Norway, and Switzerland were lower than those in the United States.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Unions and corporations in the United States have a substantial influence on labor relations in Canada.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A number of large MNCs are so enormous that their sales are frequently larger than the entire economy of the countries in which they conduct business.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Employees of all private firms in Japan are guaranteed lifetime employment.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The term used to describe the involvement of multiple parties in the collective bargaining process, particularly at the state and local levels is called
a. End-run bargaining.
b. Sunshine Law.
c. Multilateral bargaining.
d. Interest arbitration.
e. Round-table meeting.
Q:
The quasi-judicial agency that hears appeals from federal employees who allege violations of their employment rights is the:
a. Federal Labor Relations Authority.
b. Federal Service Impasse Panel (FSIP).
c. Merit System Protection Board (MSPB).
d. Civil Service Reform Act (CSRA).
e. Empowerment Agency.
Q:
The agency which provides assistance in resolving negotiation impasses between federal agencies and unions in the federal government is the:
a. Federal Labor Relations Authority.
b. Federal Service Impasse Panel (FSIP).
c. Merit System Protection Board (MSPB).
d. Civil Service Reform Act (CSRA).
e. Empowerment Agency.
Q:
The independent, neutral agency that administers the federal labor relations program and investigates unfair labor practices is the:
a. Federal Labor Relations Authority.
b. Federal Service Impasse Panel (FSIP).
c. Merit System Protection Board (MSPB).
d. Civil Service Reform Act (CSRA).
e. Empowerment Agency.
Q:
The term used when unions support political leaders who in turn reward public employees with better pension benefits and job security is:
a. Kickbacks.
b. Jury rigged.
c. Returned favors.
d. Hand-wash-hand
e. Payola.
Q:
State laws that allow citizens to observe the collective bargaining process are referred to as:
a. Sunshine laws.
b. Blue laws.
c. Sunset laws.
d. Watergate laws.
e. Fishbowl laws.
Q:
Which of the following statements about the rights and obligations of public-sector employees is NOT correct?
a. Because citizens indirectly pay public-sector workers salaries, employers have to be mindful of the image that employees project.
b. Public-sector employees political activities and off-the-job behavior are regulated more closely than most private-sector workers.
c. A public-sector employees rights to expression and association cannot be limited any more than the similar rights of private-sector workers.
d. Tenured public-sector employees have the right to be informed of the charges against them and have an opportunity to respond before they can be fired.
e. A public-sector employees First Amendment right to expression cannot be overruled simply by the employers need for efficient work operations.
Q:
What is the labor relations term used to describe the involvement of multiple parties in the collective bargaining process, particularly applicable to state and local level public sector bargaining?
a. Sunshine bargaining.
b. Transpartite bargaining.
c. Sovereignty bargaining.
d. Multilateral bargaining.
e. End-run bargaining.
Q:
Using the _______________ approach, an arbitrator chooses the entirety of either the unions or managements final offer covering all disputed issues.
a. Issue-by-issue final offer arbitration (FOA)
b. Whole issue SOL
c. Whole issue final offer arbitration (FOA)
d. Bottom line final offer arbitration (FOA)
e. Total package selection final offer arbitration (FOA)
Q:
Which of the following statements is false about the differences between the public and private sectors?
a. There are frequently no good substitutes available for the products/services offered by the public sector.
b. Monopolistic conditions frequently exist in the public sector.
c. Market forces act to constrain union and management negotiators in the public sector in much the same way that market forces constrain their private sector counterparts.
d. Productivity bargaining is especially difficult because it is so difficult to measure productivity when it comes to many public-sector services.
e. The market economy does not operate in the public sector.
Q:
A criticism of public-sector interest arbitration is that it:
a. Has no finality.
b. Has a "narcotic effect" on the parties.
c. Ends with a recommendation only but is not binding.
d. Should be more formalized.
e. Can go on almost indefinitely.
Q:
The most used and least studied dispute resolution procedure used in the public sector is:
a. Arbitration.
b. Fist-fighting.
c. Fact finding.
d. Mediation.
e. Referendum.
Q:
Nonpaying employees must be represented in collective bargaining, grievance administration, and arbitration by the unions are called:
a. Freely represented.
b. Free-from-dues.
c. Free to work.
d. Free members.
e. Free riders.
Q:
Which one of the following strategies is NOT a strategy that is commonly used to increase a public employer's cost of continuing to disagree with a union bargaining proposal?
a. A threat to "blow the whistle" on a questionable management practice.
b. A threat to conduct a recall election.
c. A threat to withdraw the political support of union members
d. Malicious obedience or working to rule in order to slow down work
e. Use of various job action techniques.
Q:
Each of the following subjects is permissible in federal-sector negotiations except:
a. Types and grades of positions assigned to any organizational unit.
b. Management rights such as determining mission, budget, and internal security practices.
c. Tour of duty.
d. Use of technology in the workplace.
e. Methods and means of performing work.
Q:
The designation granted to a labor union by the federal government that indicates that the union has been selected by secret ballot of employees to be the exclusive representative of a group of employees is called:
a. Multilateral bargaining.
b. Exclusive recognition.
c. Amalgamation.
d. Nnational consultation.
e. Empowered representation.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT considered an unfair labor practice under the Civil Service Reform Act (CSRA)?
a. Refusing to negotiate over a permissible bargaining subject
b. Restraining and coercing employees in the exercise of their rights
c. Encouraging or discouraging union membership
d. Controlling or assisting a labor organization
e. Refusing to negotiate with a designated labor organization
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true about privatization?
a. Where employees lacked collective bargaining rights in the public sector, privatization of their jobs has provided many of them with the opportunity to be represented by a union in the private sector.
b. Privatization of public-sector jobs was begun in the 1980s under the Reagan administration.
c. The Bush administration has proposed privatizing up to half of all federal public-sector jobs.
d. Public-sector jobs are more likely to be privatized when the public sector union-management relationship is adversarial.
e. The private sector cannot enter into contract with government agencies.
Q:
The public-sector employee group most likely to participate in strikes is:
a. Garbage collectors.
b. Police.
c. Educators.
d. Public utility workers.
e. Mass transit workers.
Q:
Which of the following has NOT contributed to the growth of public-sector unionization?
a. The general publics somewhat favorable attitude toward public-sector unionization
b. The establishment and success of impasse procedures to resolve public-sector labor disputes
c. Favorable public-sector labor laws
d. Privatization and downsizing of public-sector jobs
e. Reducing managements cost of agreeing with the union by campaigning to fund the negotiated labor agreement.
Q:
The federal government agency that administers the federal relations program and investigates unfair labor practices is the:
a. Federal Labor Relations Board.
b. National Labor Relations Board.
c. Civil Service Reform Board.
d. Federal Labor Relations Authority.
e. Federal Reserve System.
Q:
Which one of the following organizations consists of one chairperson and at least six members appointed by the President that investigate any negotiation impasse presented and is authorized to take any necessary action to settle the dispute?
a. Federal Service Impasse Panel
b. Federal Trade Commission
c. National Labor Relation Commission
d. Federal Labor Relations Authority
e. Federal Negotiations Service
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA)?
a. Oversees the creation of bargaining units.
b. Supervises representation elections.
c. Conducts hearings and resolves complaints of unfair labor practices.
d. Hears appeals regarding arbitrator awards.
e. Provides assistance in resolving negotiation impasses.
Q:
At what level of government are the highest percent of public-sector employees who are union members found?
a. Federal.
b. Municipal.
c. Regional.
d. State.
e. Local.
Q:
The Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA) was established by:
a. Executive Order 11838.
b. The Civil Service Reform Act of 1978.
c. The Department of Health, Education, and Welfare.
d. A joint venture between Congress and union leaders.
e. Congressional Order 56552.
Q:
The existence of monopolistic conditions in the public sector, and their control of the services rendered and products offered also exist in the private sector.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Employee grievances over matters concerning adverse action, position classification, and equal employment opportunity are covered by the CSRA.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The patronage system, also called the spoils system was applauded for providing qualified individuals that could get things done.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The Civil Service Reform Act (CSRA) created the Merit System Protection Board (MSPB) which is an independent quasi-judicial agency to hear appeals from federal employees.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Fact-finding and arbitration are successful in resolving impasses because these procedures provide deadlines for the parties to resolve their differences.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Under final offer arbitration (FOA), the arbitrator selects the best package settlement presented by the union or management or proposes a compromise of both positions by splitting the difference.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The sovereignty doctrine makes it difficult to delegate decision-making authority to specific administrative officials
a. True
b. False
Q:
The budget tends to play a more conspicuous role in private-sector collective bargaining than it does in public-sector bargaining.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Under the Homeland Security Act of 2002, the President may waive employee and union rights granted under the Civil Service Reform Act.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Under the Civil Service Reform Act (CSRA), management is prohibited from assisting a labor organization.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In the federal sector, the agency and the exclusively recognized union have a duty to meet at reasonable times and confer in good faith with respect to mandatory subjects of collective bargaining.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The Federal Service Impasse Panel (FSIP) investigates any negotiation impasse presented to it but is not authorized to take any action to settle the dispute.
a. True
b. False
Q:
While strikes have been outlawed for most public employees, they still occur in some states.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The so-called "free rider" issue is of little concern for public-sector unions.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Public-sector union membership is much greater in the Northeast, North, and West than in the South and Midwest.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The threat of a strike seems to encourage voluntary settlement efforts at the bargaining table while the availability of interest arbitration may reduce such incentive producing a "chilling effect" on negotiations.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Union negotiators have more difficulty determining "who speaks for management" in public-sector bargaining as compared to private-sector negotiations.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Public-sector supervisors and other lower to midlevel managers have the right to engage in collective bargaining in more than a dozen states.
a. True
b. False
Q:
As in the private sector, the market economic system controls the price, quality, and availability of most services in the public sector.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The Civil Service Reform Act (CSRA) makes it an unfair labor practice for a party to refuse or fail to cooperate in impasse procedures.
a. True
b. False
Q:
If a subject of collective bargaining is permissible, both parties are required to negotiate in good faith, even though an agreement may not be reached.
a. True
b. False
Q:
If a governmental unit privatizes a government service to a private business, the private employer is likely to be covered under the Labor Management Relations Act.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A major advantage of the Civil Service Reform Act (CSRA) was that it established the framework for labor relations in the federal government by legislation, instead of by Executive Order.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Favorable public-sector labor legislation appears to be a significant factor encouraging growth in public-sector bargaining within a state.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A majority of teachers, firefighters, and police are represented by public-sector unions.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The type of behavior, a form of insubordination, which occurs when an employee directs profanity, epithets, or verbal abuse toward a supervisor is called
a. Aggression
b. Alcohol-related misconduct.
c. Fighting on the job.
d. Abusive behavior.
e. Subordination.
Q:
Discipline cases where arbitrators focus on whether the substance of the message violates an employer policy or infringes on some legitimate employer interest involves:
a. Sit down strikes.
b. Secret meetings.
c. Social media.
d. Informational handouts.
e. Soapbox speeches.
Q:
The level of proof which arbitrators use wherein testimony and evidence must be adequate to overcome opposing presumptions and evidence is called:
a. Clear and convincing evidence.
b. Preponderance of evidence.
c. Beyond a reasonable doubt evidence.
d. Misuse of Internet evidence.
e. Incommunicative evidence.
Q:
The interim measure decided by the union and employer when an employee is threatened with a termination which gives the employee a chance to improve his or her performance or conduct in order to keep his or her job is called a:
a. Disciplinary penalty.
b. Last chance agreement.
c. Second chance agreement.
d. Mitigating circumstance.
e. Price list penalty.
Q:
Which of the following offenses results in a discharge on the first offense?
a. Unauthorized absence.
b. Sleeping on duty.
c. Gambling during working hours.
d. Working while intoxicated.
e. Failure to observe safety rules.
Q:
Arbitrators give the most consideration to the employee's:
a. Work record.
b. Age.
c. Arrest record.
d. Religious affiliation.
e. Gender.
Q:
The legislation which helped shape managements disciplinary policies and created the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) for enforcement purposes was the:
a. Unfair Discrimination Act.
b. Steelworkers Trilogy.
c. Weingarten Decision.
d. Wagner Act.
e. Unfair Discrimination Act.
Q:
Suspensions:
a. Typically average three months in length according to one study.
b. Must always be given before discharge.
c. Are less serious than "oral warnings" because they do not become a permanent part of the employee's work record.
d. Are disciplinary lay-offs without pay.
e. Typically is the step after discharge.
Q:
A grievant receiving notice that another similar incident of misconduct will be "subject to dismissal":
a. Will not be able to have his/her discharge reviewed by an arbitrator since advance notice was given.
b. Must be discharged if he/she repeats that incident.
c. Can be discharged for a different, minor offense since the grievant was put on general notice.
d. May be discharged if he/she repeats that incident, based on a consideration of the specific circumstances surrounding the infraction.
e. Will have to join the union.
Q:
Which of the following is correct about employees who are union stewards?
a. Arbitrators might uphold more lenient penalties for them as opposed to other employees for identical participation in a wildcat strike.
b. Arbitrators give them more leeway than they would other employees for arguments/ remarks made to management in a grievance meeting.
c. Arbitrators consider them no differently than any other employee.
d. They cannot be discharged by management because of legal protection under the National Labor Relations Act.
e. Union stewards actually have less responsibility when it comes to disciplinary matters.
Q:
Rules prohibiting "horseplay" or "gambling" are usually:
a. Vaguer than management intended, even though it seems clear what is meant by these terms.
b. Regarded by most arbitrators as trivial concerns.
c. Almost always regarded by arbitrators as being clear and to the point and therefore subject to little interpretation.
d. Always upheld by arbitrators when discipline occurs for their infraction.
e. Treated the same no matter the degree of seriousness.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true about work rules?
a. Management has an absolute obligation to inform the union of new work rules before they can be administered in the workplace.
b. Managements disciplinary decisions are more likely to be supported by an arbitrator when there are established work rules relating to the disciplinary offense.
c. Work rules must be clear and conclusive, indicating what is expected.
d. Management must inform employees of the rules and the consequences of their violation.
e. Management must administer the rules consistently for employees violating the rules under similar circumstances.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an example where an arbitrator might reverse or modify an employers disciplinary action because of a violation of the just cause standard?
a. The employer fails to conduct a full and fair investigation of the employees alleged misconduct.
b. The employers rules were not clearly communicated to the employee, and the employee did not fully understand what was expected.
c. There are mitigating circumstances, such as the employees long and distinguished service.
d. The employer acts in a consistent and even-handed manner by dispensing a disciplinary penalty that is identical to those used with other employees in similar circumstances.
e. There is improper administration of the employers rules and requirements.
Q:
A "reasonable" rule:
a. Must be jointly established by management and the union.
b. Relates to the orderly, efficient, and safe operation of the employer's business.
c. Must apply to all employees and operations at a particular organization equally.
d. Can be unrelated to the necessities of business operations.
e. Is not outweighed by the employees personal rights on and off the job.
Q:
Evidence obtained through "search and seizure" techniques (e.g., looking inside the employee's locker) without the employee's knowledge:
a. Will be automatically prohibited by the arbitrator.
b. Will usually be permitted as long as company representatives did not forcibly break into the employee's private property.
c. Will subject the management representative to criminal prosecution according to a recent Supreme Court decision.
d. Will not be considered by the arbitrator if the employee did not know about the search.
e. Will always be considered by the arbitrator regardless of how it was obtained.
Q:
The burden of proof for disciplinary action rests with management in:
a. Some disciplinary cases.
b. None of disciplinary cases.
c. Most disciplinary cases.
d. Half of disciplinary cases.
e. All disciplinary cases.
Q:
Which of the following would NOT lead an arbitrator to consider reducing managements assigned penalty?
a. The circumstances of the case were so unusual that it is very unlikely to happen again.
b. Management contributed to the disciplinary problem and must assume part of the responsibility.
c. The employee was experiencing marital problems and it is likely that once the personal problem is resolved, the infraction will not occur again.
d. The employees behavior is related to fulfilling his or her duties as a union officer.
e. The employee misconduct involves an illegal act.
Q:
Even though all of the following rationale may be legitimate from a managerial perspective, arbitrators consider which one of the following to be the only legitimate/ necessary purpose of employee discipline?
a. To maintain respect for the supervisors authority.
b. To promote efficient production.
c. To correct and improve the employee's behavior.
d. To set an example of appropriate behavior to other employees.
e. To transmit the rules of the organization to other employees.
Q:
A disadvantage of the "price list" contractual provision pertaining to discipline is that:
a. It aims to impose consistent discipline.
b. Its inflexible nature makes it difficult to consider the unique circumstances of each disciplinary case.
c. The employee is clearly informed of the specific rules and consequences of violations.
d. The standardized penalties suggest consistent disciplinary action is implemented.
e. If agreed to by the union, it assumes more legitimacy than a unilateral work rule posted by management.
Q:
Which of the following statements about the managerial implications of discipline is false?
a. Arbitrators have the power to overturn a managers disciplinary action, including reinstating a discharged employee with full back pay.
b. First-line supervisors are the level of management most intimately and frequently involved in disciplinary issues.
c. The managers authority can be compromised when one of their discharge decisions is overturned and the affected employee returns to the workplace.
d. The majority of reinstated employees perform in a below-average manner after returning to the workplace following reinstatement.
e. A disciplinary action carries the most significance for the employer.
Q:
The concept that an employer may dismiss employees at will, for no cause, and even for cause morally wrong, without being guilty of legal wrong is called:
a. Wrongful discharge.
b. Disciplinary action.
c. Indefinite suspension.
d. Immediate action.
e. Employment-at-will doctrine.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the broad powers exercised by arbitrators in discipline cases?
a. The power to establish reasonable standards for proof and evidence.
b. The power to determine what constitutes just cause for discipline.
c. The power to determine if employers have violated federal law and dispatch remedies against the employer.
d. The power to review when warranted, a disciplinary penalty that has been imposed by management.
e. To modify or eliminate the penalty imposed by management when warranted.
Q:
The exception to the employment-at-will doctrine which occurs when an employer and employee form an implied contract, even though there is no express, written instrument regarding the employment relationship is called the:
a. Public policy exception
b. Covenant-of-good faith and fair dealing exception
c. Implied contract exception
d. Job security exception
e. Discharge exception.
Q:
Which of the following statements is NOT true about the evolution of employee discipline?
a. It wasnt until the 1970s that employers could be held legally accountable for their disciplinary actions.
b. In the 18th and 19th centuries, employers exercised unrestricted discretion in directing the workforce.
c. Frederick W. Taylor was among the first management thinkers to advocate a disciplinary approach that focuses on correction rather than discharge.
d. At one time, an employee could be disciplined by having his tongue burned or being whipped in public for speaking to management in an insolent or rude manner.
e. The Wagner Act of 1935 helped shape managements disciplinary policies.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of progressive discipline?
a. Progressive discipline does not allow employees an opportunity to correct their behavior.
b. The focus of progressive discipline is on correction.
c. Progressive discipline impresses on the employee the seriousness of repeated offenses.
d. Provides employee opportunities to correct his or her behavior.
e. Provides an oral warning, or reprimand to an employee.