Q&A Hero

Q: According to the Crawford Slip technique, is the ability to use free association to generate or classify ideas in categories. a. fluency b. tactility c. flexibility d. synergy

Q: means that the whole is greater than the sum of the parts. a. Synergy b. Energy c. Fluency d. Equity

Q: When a supervisor solves a problem or makes the decision himself, using the information available to him, he is using the _____. a. autocratic approach b. group concensus approach c. consultative approach d. optimum decision style

Q: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, people who prefer are skillful in dealing with matters that require logic, objectivity, and careful examination of facts. a. feeling b. intuition c. thinking d. sensing

Q: According to Myers and Briggs, people who prefer tend to be successful in applying skills in interpersonal and human relations. a. thinking b. sensing c. feeling d. intuition

Q: According to Myers and Briggs, people who rely primarily on tend to be patient, practical, and realistic. a. sensing b. thinking c. intuition d. feeling

Q: The last step in the decision-making process is: a. selecting the preferred alternative. b. implementing the decision. c. following up and evaluating decisions. d. evaluating and interpreting alternatives.

Q: Following up on decision making involves exercising the management function of: a. downsizing. b. centralizing. c. leading. d. controlling.

Q: is used to select the preferred alternative once the alternatives have been developed and information about them has been collected. a. A Gantt chart b. A cost/benefit analysis c. A PERT chart d. The critical path method

Q: In deciding between two alternatives, the supervisor should choose the one that: a. gives the greatest payoff at the lowest cost. b. gives the greatest payoff at the highest cost. c. gives the least payoff at the lowest cost. d. gives the least payoff at the highest cost.

Q: is a good technique to use to generate a full set of alternatives. a. Marketing b. Testing the communication systems c. Brainstorming d. Checking out office rumors

Q: The first step in the decision making process is to: a. provide feedback. b. define the problem. c. select alternatives for the problem. d. develop alternatives for the problem.

Q: Improving an already effective preventive maintenance system is an example of: a. a non-programmed decision. b. opportunity decision making. c. problem solving. d. an organizational policy.

Q: Which of the following statements is true of problem solving? a. The golden rule of management is that a supervisor should always consider a problem as an opportunity. b. Decision making is unrelated to problem solving. c. Effective supervisors analyze problems, and solve them by eliminating their causes. d. Placing greater emphasis on problems can help a supervisor to identify opportunities.

Q: A fire accident just occurred in the department that Tom supervises. Which type of decision must Tom make in the given situation? a. A non-programmed decision b. An opportunity decision c. A programmed decision d. A repetitive decision

Q: The decision about how frequently to do maintenance servicing is an example of a: a. single-use decision. b. programmed decision. c. reflexive decision. d. non-programmed decision.

Q: A non-programmed decision: a. is routine and repetitive. b. is the decision taken by a supervisor when a given situation is inevitable. c. requires different responses each time. d. is handled by supervisors in a systematic way as it requires the same response each time.

Q: A is one which is routine and repetitive. a. non-programmed decision b. linear decision c. programmed decision d. reflexive decision

Q: If there is only one alternative, . a. the rank-and-file employees make the decision for the whole organization b. it is best for the supervisor to take no action against the problem c. no decision to needs to be made. d. the outcome is always undesirable.

Q: Which of the following is true of the elements involved in decision making? a. In many supervisory situations, no decision is needed, and decision making would be in vain. b. A supervisor's decision making is oriented towards the present only and should never contain an element of uncertainty. c. Decision making involves an unconscious process of selection. d. The decision to do nothing is always the best decision for a supervisor, because it it is always best to let the top management to make decisions.

Q: Which of the following statements is true of decision making? a. If a given event is inevitable, a decision need not be made. b. Decisions should never contain an element of uncertainty. c. The possibility of doing nothing is not an alternative in the decision making process. d. A decision is made only when there is a single solution to a problem.

Q: is best defined as the conscious consideration and selection of a course of action from among available alternatives. a. Creative planning b. Decision making c. Scenario planning d. Balancing

Q: The lower the level of management, . a. the wider the manager's span of management b. the less frequently the manager needs to make decisions c. the lesser the managers spend time interacting with their subordinates d. the higher the manager's authority

Q: The is the number of immediate employees a supervisor can supervise effectively. a. span of organization b. span of management c. span of leadership d. span of decision making

Q: Which of the following is true of managers? a. Top managers must make more decisions more often. b. Supervisors direct employees' behavior toward achieving their own goals. c. Employees look to top managers for more direction, guidance, and protection than do subordinates of managers at lower levels. d. The lower the level of management, the smaller the span of management.

Q: The highest level of ethical behavior is the legal level, adhering to the "law of the land." a. True b. False

Q: Ethics are the standards that are used to judge rightness or wrongness of a persons behavior toward others. a. True b. False

Q: The nominal group technique is structured and generates ideas through round-robin individual responses. a. True b. False

Q: Fluency is the ability to let ideas flow out of your head like water over a waterfall. a. True b. False

Q: The Crawford Slip technique makes use of two elements that are important to creativity: fluency and leniency. a. True b. False

Q: Brainstorming is a process that is used as a technique to foster creative problem solving. a. True b. False

Q: Synergy means that the whole is less than the sum of the parts. a. True b. False

Q: The autocratic style is the only style that the Vroom-Yetton model describes. a. True b. False

Q: The Vroom-Yetton model provides guidelines on the extent to which subordinates are involved in decision making or problem solving. a. True b. False

Q: The MyersBriggs Type Indicator measures four dichotomies of personality types. a. True b. False

Q: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, people who rely on intuition tend to be patient and realistic. a. True b. False

Q: The MyersBriggs Type Indicator (MBTI) helps identify a groups problemsolving style. a. True b. False

Q: Decision makers attempt to minimize the possibility of risk by not attempting to forecast outcomes or variables. a. True b. False

Q: Determining whether a decision is achieving results involves the control function of management. a. True b. False

Q: In a cost/benefit analysis, a supervisor evaluates what each alternative will cost in terms of financial resources alone. a. True b. False

Q: Sometimes policies, procedures, and rules provide information that affect a decision. a. True b. False

Q: Supervisors are, first and foremost, fixers. a. True b. False

Q: Every effective supervisor must be a good detective. a. True b. False

Q: When solving a problem, it is important to identify the factors causing the problem. a. True b. False

Q: A situation that is viewed as a source of anxiety or distress can best be called an opportunity. a. True b. False

Q: Whom to promote to a supervisory position is an unprogrammed decision. a. True b. False

Q: Handling a severe accident warrants a programmed decision. a. True b. False

Q: Programmed decisions are decisions that occur infrequently and require a different response each time. a. True b. False

Q: Joan reported late for work on several occasions this week. In handling this situation, her supervisor Jim will probably use a programmed decision. a. True b. False

Q: A supervisor's decision always contains an element of uncertainty. a. True b. False

Q: Even if an outcome is inevitable, a decision is always needed. a. True b. False

Q: Decision making is considering and selecting a course of action from among alternatives. a. True b. False

Q: Span of management is the number of decisions a manager can make in one day. a. True b. False

Q: Supervisors must make more decisions more frequentlyand often more quicklythan other managers. a. True b. False

Q: Managers must make decisions whenever they perform any of the five management functionsplanning, organizing, staffing, controlling, and leading. a. True b. False

Q: Discuss two techniques used for scheduling.

Q: Describe the difference/s between standing plans and single-use plans, and give an example of each type of plan.

Q: Discuss important guidelines in setting performance objectives.

Q: Explain hierarchy of objectives.

Q: What is the importance of setting objectives?

Q: Explain how planning differs at top, middle, and supervisory management levels.

Q: What is contingency planning, and why is it important?

Q: Why do managers neglect planning?

Q: Which of the managerial functions is planning most related to, and why?

Q: What are the three steps in the planning process?

Q: The is used on highly complex, one-time projects. a. PERT network chart b. Gantt chart c. contingency method d. critical path method

Q: The identifies work stages on a vertical axis and schedule completion dates horizontally. a. PERT chart b. Gantt Chart c. pie chart d. flow chart

Q: A budget is: a. a standing plan. b. a policy. c. a single-use plan. d. a repeat-use plan.

Q: A is a forecast of expected financial performance over time. a. budget b. project c. schedule d. program

Q: Which of the following types of plans is often discarded after use? a. A standing plan b. A policy c. A procedure d. A budget

Q: A outlines the steps to be performed when a particular course of action is taken. a. rule b. procedure c. budget d. policy

Q: are inflexible and must be obeyed. a. Policies b. Strategies c. Rules d. Projects

Q: Employees who violate an organizational mandate which states that Employees who violate the nosmoking rule are automatically discharged are going against an organizational: a. rule. b. procedure. c. policy. d. objective.

Q: A is a guide to decision making-a way to provide consistency among decision makers. a. patent b. policy c. trademark d. project

Q: A is an example of a standing plan. a. budget b. policy c. schedule d. program

Q: Which of the following is true of guidelines to be followed while setting objectives? a. Managers should not involve employees in setting objectives. b. The objective "to have good quality" is an example of a good objective. c. Objectives should be as broad and ambiguous as possible. d. The key performance areas should be selected for setting objectives.

Q: Unified planning: a. ensures that plans at all organizational levels are in harmony. b. is planning done by an organization along with its competitors in order to ensure equal market shares. c. inhibits coordination among departments. d. promotes competition between departments.

Q: A(n) is a network with broad goals at the top level of the organization and narrower goals for individual divisions, departments, or employees. a. unified plan b. organizational planning body c. management hierarchy d. hierarchy of objectives

Q: Which of the following is true of planning at different management levels? a. Top managers are more involved in strategic planning. b. Planning done at the supervisory level is more complex and involves a higher degree of uncertainty than planning done at other management levels. c. Middle managers are involved in long-term planning, and they plan for 5 or more years. d. Supervisors plan the growth rate of the organization.

Q: are what you want to accomplish-the focus toward which plans are aimed. a. Procedures b. Objectives c. Rules d. Strategies