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Home » Human Resource » Page 451

Human Resource

Q: Leader-controlled meetings encourage free flow of information. a. True b. False

Q: A leader-controlled meeting tends to be more rigid than a group-centered meeting. a. True b. False

Q: A problem-solving meeting is the least challenging of the meeting types. a. True b. False

Q: A fact-finding meeting is held to obtain information from group members and allow them to provide information to one another. a. True b. False

Q: The information-giving meeting is the most difficult type of meeting to conduct. a. True b. False

Q: Only relevant facts about a problem or situation should be sought in a fact finding meeting. a. True b. False

Q: A meeting called to announce a new sales program is an example of an information-giving meeting. a. True b. False

Q: Electronic meetings have become a necessary and valuable communication tool. a. True b. False

Q: What can be done to make the use of teleconferencing more effective?

Q: Briefly explain the process consultation model of facilitation.

Q: What are the skills needed to be an effective facilitator?

Q: What is group facilitation?

Q: Discuss the role that minutes play in following-up on meetings.

Q: What is consensus? Why is it difficult?

Q: Ineffective leadership ruins many well-prepared meetings. What are the ways in which the supervisor should prepare to demonstrate leadership?

Q: What are some of the things that should be done to pre-plan a meeting effectively and ensure its success?

Q: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of meetings.

Q: What are the advantages of the group-centered approach?

Q: Differentiate between the leader-controlled and group-centered approaches to conducting meetings.

Q: List the purposes of meetings and briefly discuss each one.

Q: How does the use of technology facilitate meetings?

Q: is a method of gathering people together for a meeting without the cost of physically bringing people from distant locations. a. Group facilitation b. Process consultation c. Teleconferencing d. Consensus

Q: In the facilitation model, the consultant involves others in making a joint diagnosis and eventually provides others with the skills and tools to make their own diagnoses. a. doctor-patient b. leader-controlled c. purchase-of-expertise d. process-consultation

Q: The most widely-used form of consultation is the . a. process consultation model b. doctor-patient model c. purchase-of-expertise model d. teleconferencing model

Q: The is the consultation model that places a great deal of power in the hands of the consultant who recommends solutions to problems faced by an organization. a. process evaluation model b. purchase-of-expertise model c. doctor-patient model d. process consultation model

Q: In essence, a facilitator becomes a(n) during meetings. a. scapegoat b. supervisor c. employee d. consultant

Q: Group facilitation is the process of: a. establishing clear performance standards and comparing actual performance against those standards. b. intervening to help a group improve in goal setting, action planning, problem solving, conflict management, and decision making to increase the groups effectiveness. c. successfully accomplishing the objective for a given item on the agenda. d. consulting experts that involves others in making a joint diagnosis of the problem and eventually provides others with the skills and tools to make their own diagnoses.

Q: provide a permanent written record of what has occurred in a meeting. a. Drafts b. Norms c. Minutes d. Closures

Q: Which of the following is the meaning of consensus decision making? a. Successful accomplishment of the objective for a given item on the agenda b. The acceptance by all members of the decision reached for a given item on the agenda c. The process of intervening to help a group improve in decision making in order to increase the groups effectiveness d. A consultation model that involves others in making a joint diagnosis of the problem

Q: Before a meeting, the leader responsible for the meeting should: a. make sure that key people will be able to attend. b. get "closure" on key items. c. distribute minutes to all members. d. encourage participation among members.

Q: Which of the following should NOT be done prior to a meeting? a. Make certain that the meeting room and visual aids are adequately prepared. b. Let people know if they are expected to provide information at the meeting. c. Send out an agenda. d. Reach a consensus.

Q: Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Meetings always allow the personal interaction required for many sensitive issues. b. Meetings provide an opportunity for all members present to hear the same message. c. Meetings may take members away from higher priority tasks. d. Meetings provide an opportunity for all present to hear the same message.

Q: Which of the following is NOT true of the advantages offered by meetings? a. Meetings save time. b. Meetings are always cost effective. c. Meetings ensure consistency of information. d. Meetings permit a formal exchange of information.

Q: A disadvantage of the group-centered approach to meeting is that: a. members have no real opportunity to get sensitive and emotional issues out in the open. b. it may not result in a better understanding of members viewpoints. c. it discourages a free flow of information. d. this approach is not well suited to large groups because of its interpersonal nature.

Q: In a group-centered approach, the leader: a. facilitates the meeting by keeping it moving. b. dominates what is happening. c. allows the group to facilitate its own direction. d. answers all the questions of the members.

Q: An advantage of group-centered meetings is that: a. it is well suited to large groups because of its interpersonal nature. b. it has a fairly rigid structure, making it easier for the leader to control. c. the free flow of information contributes to a better decision. d. the meeting takes up lesser time than the leader-controlled approach.

Q: Employees interact freely with one another in a(n) . a. information-giving meeting b. group-centered meeting c. leader-controlled meeting d. doctor-patient meeting

Q: A disadvantage of leader-controlled meeting is that: a. the meeting takes up a great deal more time than group-centered approach. b. the creativity that results from the piggybacking of ideas is stifled. c. it is not well suited to large groups because of its interpersonal nature. d. it does not allow a large amount of material to be covered.

Q: An advantage of the leader-controlled approach is that: a. members have an opportunity to get sensitive and emotional issues out in the open. b. it results in a better understanding of members viewpoints. c. it encourages a free flow of information among members. d. this approach allows a large amount of material to be covered quickly.

Q: A meeting called in an effort to discuss and evaluate alternative solutions, and ultimately to make a decision as to the proper action to take, would be a(n) . a. information-giving meeting b. information-exchange meeting c. fact-finding meeting d. problem-solving meeting

Q: Finding and remedying the causes of project delays is one of the topics included in a(n) . a. group dynamics meeting b. problem-solving meeting c. fact-finding meeting d. information-giving meeting

Q: In a(n) the leader does not focus on solutions, but rather on understanding the problem. a. information-giving meeting b. information-exchange meeting c. fact-finding meeting d. problem-solving meeting

Q: In a(n) , there tends to be little feedback from group members unless they have questions to ask or points to clarify about the information presented. a. information-giving meeting b. information-exchange meeting c. fact-finding meeting d. problem-solving meeting

Q: The easiest type of meeting to conduct is the . a. information-giving meeting b. information-exchange meeting c. fact-finding meeting d. problem-solving meeting

Q: Which of the following is an appropriate purpose for calling an information-exchange meeting? a. To seek out relevant facts about a problem or situation b. To identify the problem, to discuss alternative solutions, and to decide on the proper action to take c. To announce new programs and policies or to update present ones d. To obtain information from group members and to allow them to provide information to one another

Q: Define what is meant by the term team and describe some of the characteristics that are indicative of a successful team.

Q: What are some variables that affect group effectiveness?

Q: What are the advantages of groups? What are the disadvantages?

Q: Describe how self-managed work teams operate differently from traditional work teams.

Q: List the four stages of small group development and briefly describe each.

Q: What is the difference between formal groups and informal groups?

Q: Describe the two types of forces creating change and give examples.

Q: A is a collection of people who must rely on group cooperation in order to experience the most success possible and thereby achieve the organization's goals. a. committee b. team c. task force d. bureaucracy

Q: Cohesiveness is positively impacted by all of the following, EXCEPT: a. team feeling in a group. b. internal power struggles. c. agreement on objectives. d. frequency of communication.

Q: The mutual liking and team feeling in a group is known as: a. synergy. b. group effectiveness. c. group cohesiveness. d. task structure.

Q: are the rules of behavior developed by group members. a. Norms b. Objectives c. Skills d. Dynamics

Q: The best group composition for a group designed to perform a complex task is: a. a homogenous group. b. a group similar in background and culture. c. a group of the same gender and race. d. a group with diverse backgrounds and value systems.

Q: A problem-solving group performs effectively when: a. at least 14 members are present. b. the group size is five to seven members. c. the group is made of only contributors. d. the group is made of only communicators and collaborators.

Q: are process-oriented, positive-people team members who are effective listeners and facilitators of any conflict among team members. a. Contributors b. Challengers c. Collaborators d. Communicators

Q: Social loafing means that an individual is when working with others as a team. a. working diligently b. taking a free ride c. interacting with members d. satisfying his self-esteem needs

Q: Which of the following statements is true? a. Groups provide opportunities for members to satisfy security needs. b. Groups discourage social loafing and hinder free riders. c. Groups allow total responsibility to be placed on each member. d. Groups are more effective when they have more than seven members.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a benefit that members can derive from participation in an informal group? a. Satisfaction of security needs b. Satisfaction of self-esteem needs c. Satisfaction of social needs d. Satisfaction of bureaucratic needs

Q: The stage of group development in which the group develops open communication and group cohesion is the stage. a. forming b. storming c. norming d. performing

Q: Conflict over goals, task behaviors, and leadership roles can be expected typically in the stage of group development. a. forming b. storming c. norming d. performing

Q: The stage of group development in which the group determines role expectations is the stage. a. forming b. storming c. norming d. performing

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the four stages of group development? a. Storming b. Forming c. Conforming d. Norming

Q: are examples of formal groups. a. Social groups b. Network groups c. Friendship groups d. Interest groups

Q: Informal groups: a. are deliberately created by management of an organization. b. evolve out of employees' need for social interaction. c. are part of the organization chart. d. are groups forming a part of the network working within an organization.

Q: Which of the following is an informal group? a. Friendship group b. Task force c. Committee d. Network group

Q: The concept that two or more people working together can accomplish more that the sum of their independent efforts is: a. synergy. b. cohesiveness. c. organizational effectiveness. d. social loafing.

Q: Changing an organization's people involves: a. altering the engineering processes. b. modifying research direction and techniques. c. revising training and development activities. d. changing communications systems and work flows.

Q: Changing an organization's technology includes: a. changing managerial leadership and communication. b. revising recruiting and selection policies. c. altering research direction and techniques. d. modifying an organization's internal relationships.

Q: Changing an organization's structure involves: a. modifying factors such as tools, equipment, and machinery. b. rearranging authorityresponsibility relationships. c. altering training and development activities. d. changing research direction and techniques.

Q: results from activities that improve an organizations structure, technology, and people so it can achieve its objectives. a. Organizational behavior b. Organizational effectiveness c. Organizational theory d. Organizational learning

Q: are factors that an organization's management has little control over. a. Internal change forces b. External change forces c. Organizational norms d. Organizational design

Q: Which of the following would be an internal change force? a. New organizational objectives b. Changes in consumer requirements c. Advancement in technology d. Changes in government regulation

Q: Which of the following would be an example of an external change force? a. Alterations to incentive programs b. Change in an organization's goal c. Change in government regulation d. Flexibility in working hours

Q: Internal change forces result from changes in: a. natural resources. b. government regulations. c. consumer demands for products. d. organization goals.

Q: Team members should listen, connect and communicate with each other. a. True b. False

Q: One of the reasons that a team might fail is because the team does not have clear purpose. a. True b. False

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