Q&A Hero

Q: The first step in disciplinary due process is to: a. notify the employee of the infraction in writing. b. make definite, provable charges. c. establish rules of conduct. d. impose a graduated penalty.

Q: guarantees the individual accused of violating an established rule a hearing to determine the extent of guilt. a. Due process b. Progressive discipline c. Performance appraisal d. Validity checking

Q: The word, discipline can be used to refer to all of the following concepts, EXCEPT: a. self-control. b. performance appraisal. c. punishment for improper behavior. d. conditions leading to orderly behavior.

Q: Which of the following statements is true of appraisal interviews? a. Appraisal interviews are the part of the job that supervisors like most. b. A supervisor should emphasize the positive aspects of the employee's performance while recommending improvements. c. The conventional approach to the appraisal interview is emotionally uplifting for both the employee and the supervisor. d. Appraisal interviews are incompatible with the objective of providing feedback on workers progress.

Q: A(n) is used to communicate the reviews of performance to an employee. a. management audit b. appraisal confrontation c. appraisal interview d. central tendency

Q: Training is defined as: a. the high positive correlation between the applicants test scores and some objective measure of job performance. b. the process to measure an applicant's capacity to learn, solve problems, understand relationships, knowledge of and ability to do a given job, and emotional adjustment and attitude. . c. the procedure of familiarizing a new employee with the company surroundings, policies, and job responsibilities. d. the process by which employees are taught knowledge, skills, and competencies to improve their capabilities, competencies, productivity, and/or performance.

Q: A performance appraisal can be used for all of the following purposes, EXCEPT: a. to point out areas that need employee improvement. b. to recognize good employee performance. c. to provide the basis for employee discharge. d. to invalidate selection techniques that meet EEOC requirements.

Q: A performance review is known by all of the following terms, EXCEPT: a. merit rating. b. efficiency rating. c. employee evaluation. d. effectiveness rating.

Q: is the process used to determine to what extent an employee is performing the job in the way it was intended to be done. a. Performance appraisal b. Management by objectives c. Career counseling d. Performance planning

Q: The purpose of the interviews held during the probationary period is to: a. predict how a person might perform on a given job. b. weed out those people who do not meet the organization's needs. c. correct any mistaken ideas the employee may have about the job. d. learn as much as possible about the applicant for the job.

Q: Job offers for hourly positions are usually made by: a. top management. b. supervisors. c. human resources department. d. project managers.

Q: Which of the following statements is true? a. The Americans with Disabilities Act prohibits all preemployment physical exams. b. A preemployment physical must be made before a preliminary job offer is made. c. A physical exam may only be used to determine whether a worker can do the job. d. A preemployment physical exam should legally require a medical history be taken.

Q: Which of the following interview techniques makes it easier for a supervisor to compare the backgrounds and experience of different job applicants? a. Uncontrolled interviews b. Unstructured interviews c. Standard interviews d. Structured interviews

Q: Which of the following responses must employers provide when asked about a former employee? a. A written evaluation of the former employee b. Dates and terms of employment c. Credit information about the former employee d. Position of employee within the organization

Q: of testing is demonstrated by a high positive correlation between the applicant's test score and some objective measure of job performance. a. Validity b. Authority c. Reliability d. Security

Q: are supposed to measure the applicant's emotional adjustment and attitudes, and are used to see how the person might fit into the organization. a. Proficiency tests b. Aptitude tests c. Vocational interest tests d. Personality tests

Q: are used to predict how a person might perform on a given job and are most applicable to operative jobs. a. Personality tests b. Aptitude tests c. Vocational interest tests d. Proficiency tests

Q: is the only two-way part of the selection procedure for employees. a. Requisition b. Submission of application c. Preliminary screening d. Preemployement interviewing

Q: The stage of the selection process is used to weed out applicants who are obviously unsuitable. a. physical examination b. in-depth interview c. preliminary screening d. employment testing

Q: The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission publishes the . a. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Rewarding, and Time defined training goals b. Genetic Information Non-Discrimination Policy c. Affirmative Action Procedures d. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures

Q: The selection process begins with: a. applications of candidates being taken by the human resource department. b. a requisition from the supervisor to the human resource department. c. preliminary screening of applicants. d. the employment interview.

Q: are the most important people in achieving an organizations human resources objectives. a. Supervisors b. Employees c. Middle managers d. Top managers

Q: set human resources objectives, establish policies, and do long-range planning and organizing. a. Top managers b. Middle managers c. Supervisors d. Project managers

Q: interpret policies for employees and carry out and carry out the organization's wishes for selecting and training employees. a. Top managers b. Middle managers c. Supervisors d. Project managers

Q: Verbal abuse of others, falsification of records, and alcohol abuse on the job are legal grounds for discharge. a. True b. False

Q: Supervisors can routinely discharge their employees without the consent of top management. a. True b. False

Q: Effective discipline involves administering punishment that takes into consideration the employee's personality and his or her worth to the organization, even if this seems inconsistent. a. True b. False

Q: After observing an offense, the supervisor should wait a few days before beginning the disciplinary process. a. True b. False

Q: Employees should be given a clear warning of the amount of discipline that will be imposed for an offense. a. True b. False

Q: Being overly concerned with avoiding errors stifles initiative, and encourages employees to postpone decisions or avoid making them altogether. a. True b. False

Q: Every job should carry with it a margin for error. a. True b. False

Q: Properly administered discipline involves provisions for a prompt hearing, protests, and appeals. a. True b. False

Q: With a graduated scale of penalties, punishment becomes progressively more severe each time the violation is repeated. a. True b. False

Q: Most progressive companies do not publish rules and penalties. a. True b. False

Q: The fourteenth amendment to the U.S. Constitution guarantees every citizen due process under the law. a. True b. False

Q: Discipline can be considered training that corrects, molds, or perfects knowledge, behavior, or conduct of an employee. a. True b. False

Q: Most employees prefer to work with a well-organized, well-disciplined group rather than with one that is not. a. True b. False

Q: To maintain authority, supervisors should not discuss their appraisals with employees. a. True b. False

Q: The conventional approach to the appraisal interview is emotionally upsetting for both the supervisor and the employee. a. True b. False

Q: The appraisal interview is one of the easiest duties that is required of a supervisor. a. True b. False

Q: Presenting a problem to be solved is not an effective way of gaining employees' attention. a. True b. False

Q: Recognition for success helps sustain an employee's motivation to perform new tasks. a. True b. False

Q: The only effective way for employees to learn anything useful is through on-the-job training. a. True b. False

Q: The EEOC does not have the authority to set guidelines for performance appraisals. a. True b. False

Q: Performance appraisals should be used for promotion purposes only, and not for the purposes of layoffs or discharges. a. True b. False

Q: Performance appraisals should be beneficial to the employee as well as the organization. a. True b. False

Q: Performance appraisals can be used for motivational purposes. a. True b. False

Q: Orientation is not necessary for new hires with a vast amount of past work experience. a. True b. False

Q: A physical examination may be required before the preliminary job offer is made. a. True b. False

Q: When checking an applicant's references, it is legal to check on dates and terms of employment, salary, and whether the termination was voluntary. a. True b. False

Q: If tests are used in making the selection decision, employers must be able to demonstrate their validity. a. True b. False

Q: Work sampling tests give a good indication of whether or not employees can actually perform particular jobs. a. True b. False

Q: IQ tests are designed to measure the applicant's capacity to learn, to solve problems, and to understand relationships. a. True b. False

Q: Personality testing is prohibited under equal employment opportunity laws. a. True b. False

Q: Preliminary screening helps weed out those applicants who do not appear to meet the employers needs. a. True b. False

Q: EEOC guidelines cover only preemployment testing. a. True b. False

Q: Top managers control the operating procedures needed to achieve an organization's objectives. a. True b. False

Q: Supervisors usually have the final word in selecting employees. a. True b. False

Q: Supervisors are usually responsible for setting human resources objectives and doing long-range planning and organizing. a. True b. False

Q: An organization can be successful regardless of number and kinds of people present to do the required work. a. True b. False

Q: Describe the role that supervisors play in promoting safety in the workplace.

Q: Identify three factors that can affect job safety and how each is related to safety.

Q: What is OSHA and what does it do?

Q: Identify two ways to motivate workers to perform high quality work consistently.

Q: Identify six tools used to assist in effective control of quality. Briefly describe each.

Q: Differentiate between common cause and special cause variation.

Q: What is the difference between total quality and quality control?

Q: In an effort to improve productivity in the United States, three productivity improvement measures have been introduced in manufacturing firms. Briefly describe each measure.

Q: What is the supervisor's role in cost control?

Q: List the four groups influencing productivity in the United States.

Q: Explain the importance of productivity to both an individual company and the United States.

Q: In terms of inputs and outputs, describe the three methods by which productivity can be improved.

Q: Discuss how productivity in the U.S. has changed from the 1980s to the present.

Q: Supervisors should promote safety in all of the following ways, EXCEPT: a. ignoring signs of fatigue as employees must be on the job to promote safety. b. actively listening to employee complaints and suggestions concerning safety. c. making regular safety inspections of all major equipment. d. implementing a safety reward system.

Q: refer to factors that cause accidents because of unsafe or defective tools and improper personal protective equipment. a. Human factors b. Environmental factors c. Technical factors d. Industrial factors

Q: The Occupational Safety and Health Act: a. was put into effect in 1961. b. necessitated maintaining safety records of illnesses and injuries incurred on the job. c. ended government inspection of industries. d. did not provide the government with authority to issue penalties.

Q: In implementing the 5S practice, shine involves: a. periodically reviewing and evaluating the team's performance. b. establishing standard procedures for maintaining the work area. c. arranging and organizing the work area. d. thoroughly cleaning the work area.

Q: According to the 5S practice, guides the supervisor to remove unneeded materials from the work area. a. shine b. sustain c. sort d. straighten

Q: The system in which materials arrive as close as feasible to when they are needed in the production process is referred to as: a. deming's 85-15 rule. b. just-in-time inventory. c. computer-assisted manufacturing. d. total quality improvement.

Q: In effective employee involvement teams, . a. projects should be related to participants work b. projects should be individual activities c. managers at the top need not be committed to the concept d. only supervisors should handle the decision-making activities