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Q:
(p. 53) Philanthropic funding and public relations are two examples of corporate social responsibility:
A. Drivers of the Corporate Social Responsiveness phase.
B. Policy instruments of the Corporate Social Stewardship phase.
C. Policy instruments of the Corporate Social Responsiveness phase.
D. Drivers of the Charity Principle phase.
Q:
(p. 47) Corporate power refers to:
A. The capability of competitors to influence legislation, trade, and the stock market, based on their organizational resources.
B. The capability of politicians to influence corporations, employees, and unions, based on their organizational resources.
C. The capability of corporations to influence government, the economy, and society, based on their organizational resources.
D. The capability of CEOs to influence product development, employee morale, and currency indices, based on their organizational resources.
Q:
(p. 53) Executive conscience, acts of charity, and philanthropic funding are examples of:
A. Corporate social stewardship.
B. Corporate social responsiveness.
C. Corporate/Business Ethics
D. Corporate/Global Citizenship
Q:
(p. 62) An argument against corporate social responsibility is that it imposes unequal costs among competitors.
Q:
(p. 52) HP Brazil, a subsidiary of Hewlett-Packard, developed the Digital Garage project to:
A. Promote the sale of PCs and notebook computers in the Brazilian consumer market.
B. Assist with natural resource conservation and recycling programs in their plant.
C. Empower less privileged Brazilian youth to participate in the growing technological society.
D. All of the above.
Q:
(p. 60) Less than 25% of CEOs surveyed in a Korn/Ferry International poll said that it was their personal responsibility to manage their company's reputation.
Q:
(p. 52) The obligation to see that everyone, particularly those in need or at risk, benefits from their firms' actions is called:
A. Giving USA Foundation.
B. Stewardship principle.
C. Social funds principle.
D. Charity principle.
Q:
(p. 59) One of the most appealing arguments in favor of corporate social responsibility for business supporters is that voluntary social acts may head off increased government regulation.
Q:
(p. 47) The capability of corporations to influence government, the economy, and society, based on their organizational resources is called the big business principle.
Q:
(p. 45) Corporate social responsibility is the idea that businesses interact with the organization's stakeholders for social good while they pursue economic goals.
Q:
(p. 56) Businesses that comply with laws and public policies are meeting a minimum level of social responsibility expected by the public.
Q:
(p. 41) Engaging interactively with stakeholders carries a number of potential benefits. Discuss.
Q:
(p. 56) Laws and regulations help create a level playing field for businesses that compete against one another.
Q:
(p. 37) What are the various stages of the business-stakeholder relationship?
Q:
(p. 55) As a response to the conflict between long- and short-term profit making, an enlightened self-interest point of view would be the least useful and practical approach.
Q:
(p. 55) Enlightened self-interest is the idea that the wealthiest members of society should be charitable toward those less fortunate.
Q:
(p. 31) Identify and discuss the five steps to the Issues Management Process.
Q:
(p. 52) Business leaders who follow the stewardship principle believe they have an obligation to see that everyone benefits from the firms' actions.
Q:
(p. 31) What is competitive intelligence? Why is it important to the public affairs function?
Q:
(p. 29) Identify the eight strategic radar screens that enable public affairs managers to scan their business environment. Briefly discuss the issues involved with each environment.
Q:
(p. 50) Being socially responsible means that a company must abandon its other missions.
Q:
(p. 25) What is a public issue and how do they impact modern firms?
Q:
(p. 50) The concept of corporate social responsibility is rooted in the meaning "to pledge back," creating a commitment to give back to society and the organization's stakeholders.
Q:
(p. 41) Corporations working collaboratively with other businesses and concerned persons and organizations is an example of:
A. Stakeholder networks.
B. Stakeholder motivation.
C. Stakeholder systems.
D. Stakeholder dialogue.
Q:
(p. 48) Only G-8 nations are affected by corporate operations, and as a result, social responsibility has not yet become a worldwide expectation.
Q:
(p. 40) A business and its stakeholders coming together for face-to-face conversations about issues of common concern is:
A. Stakeholder networks.
B. Stakeholder motivation.
C. Stakeholder systems.
D. Stakeholder dialogue.
Q:
(p. 48) Corporate power says that in the long run, those who do not use power in ways that society considers responsible will tend to lose it.
Q:
(p. 48) Huge businesses can disproportionately influence politics, shape tastes, and dominate public discourse.
Q:
(p. 39) The drivers of stakeholders of engagement are:
A. Scanning, assessment, and growth.
B. Data, strategy, and organizational development.
C. Goals, motivation, and operational capacity.
D. Financial, operational, and legal.
Q:
(p. 34) Once an organization has implemented the issue management program, it must:
A. Use trade associations or consultants to follow high priority issues.
B. Study the results and make necessary adjustments.
C. Not limit the number of public issues the firm can address.
D. Pick a selected number of issues to address immediately.
Q:
(p. 38) Stakeholder engagement is, at its core, a:
A. Program.
B. Relationship.
C. Process.
D. Systems model.
Q:
(p. 33) An issue's public profile indicates to managers:
A. How significant an issue is for the organization, but it does not tell them what to do.
B. Both how significant an issue is for the organization and exactly what to do.
C. Exactly what to do without indicators of how significant an issue is for the organization.
D. Any of the above depending on the organization type.
Q:
(p. 38) Stakeholder engagement is:
A. Any issue that is of mutual concern to an organization and one or more of its stakeholders.
B. Competitive intelligence being collected ethically and systematically.
C. The process of ongoing relationship building between a business and its stakeholders.
D. The acquisition of information gained from analyzing the multiple environments.
Q:
(p. 33) Once an issue has been identified, its implications must be:
A. Acted upon.
B. Analyzed.
C. Segmented.
D. Deleted
Q:
(p. 38) Proactive companies are:
A. Much less likely to be blindsided by crises and negative surprises.
B. Much more likely to be blindsided by crises and negative surprises.
C. Just as likely to be blindsided by crises and negative surprises.
D. Much more likely to be forced to defend itself in a lawsuit brought by a stakeholder.
Q:
(p. 38) Firms that generally act only when forced to do so, and then in a defensive manner are
A. Interactive companies.
B. Proactive companies
C. Reactive companies
D. Inactive companies.
Q:
(p. 32) The components of a typical issues management process include:
A. Identify issue.
B. Generate options.
C. Take action.
D. All of the above.
Q:
(p. 32) The issue management process has how may stages?
A. Three.
B. Four.
C. Five.
D. Six.
Q:
(p. 38) Firms that believe they can make decisions unilaterally, without taking into consideration their impact on others are:
A. Interactive companies.
B. Proactive companies.
C. Reactive companies.
D. Inactive companies.
Q:
(p. 31) The issues management process is a:
A. Beneficial tool used only to maximize the positive effects of a public issue for the organization's advantage.
B. Beneficial tool used only to minimize the negative effects of a public issue for the organization's advantage.
C. Systematic process companies use when responding to public issues that are of greatest importance to the business.
D. Confusing process that is rarely used to help top management within an organization.
Q:
(p. 37) Overtime, the nature of business's relationship with its stakeholders often:
A. Remains static.
B. Evolves through a series of stages.
C. Becomes more hostile.
D. None of the above.
Q:
(p. 31) The role of special interest groups is an important element in acquiring intelligence from the:
A. Customer environment.
B. Competitor environment.
C. Economic environment.
D. Social environment.
Q:
(p. 36) A corporation's issue management activities are usually linked to.
A. The board of directors.
B. Top management.
C. Both the board of directors and top management levels.
D. The strategic governance committee.
Q:
(p. 31) Because of the risks and opportunities public issues present, organization need.
A. A strong relationship with a lobbying firm or an in-house lobbying department.
B. Executives to be rewarded with substantial bonuses as part of total compensation.
C. A systematic way of identifying, monitoring, and selecting public issues.
D. Tougher government regulations and oversight by political action committees.
Q:
(p. 36) An effective way to learn what issues are important to people outside of the organization is through:
A. Building ongoing, positive relationships with stakeholders.
B. Conducting public opinion polls.
C. Hiring individuals from outside the company for available positions rather than promoting from within the organization.
D. All of the above.
Q:
(p. 30) Legal environmental intelligence includes:
A. Patterns of aggressive growth versus static maintenance.
Q:
(p. 35) Contemporary issue management:
A. Is a linear process.
B. Was useful in the 9170s, but not today.
C. Is used by all government agencies.
D. Is an art, not a science.
Q:
(p. 30) An analysis of the stability or instability of a government is an example of scanning the:
A. Social environment.
B. Legal environment.
C. Geophysical environment.
D. Political environment.
Q:
(p. 35) When working well, the issue management process:
A. Is static and never pulls in additional information that would disturb the balance.
B. Generates two specific options for each issue.
C. Minimizes dialogue with the stakeholders and focuses on short-term survival.
D. Continuously cycles back to the beginning and repeats.
Q:
(p. 32) Identifying the issue in the issue management process involves anticipating emerging issues.
Q:
(p. 29) The "graying" of the population is an example of:
A. Customer environment.
B. Competitor environment.
C. Economic environment.
D. Social environment.
Q:
(p. 31) Competitive intelligence enables managers in companies of all sizes to make informed decisions in all areas of the business.
Q:
(p. 29) Customer environmental intelligence includes:
A. Demographic factors.
B. An analysis of the firm's competitors.
C. New technological applications.
D. The cost of producing consumer goods.
Q:
(p. 30) Legal environment includes the structure, processes, and actions of government at the local, state, national, and international levels.
Q:
(p. 29) According to management scholar Karl Albrecht, scanning to acquire environmental intelligence should focus on:
A. Eight strategic radar screens.
B. Six management templates.
C. Eight process improvement models.
D. Six ethical decision indicators.
Q:
(p. 29) According to management scholar Karl Albrecht, scanning to acquire environmental intelligence should focus on four strategic radar screens.
Q:
(p. 28) According to a recent survey of top executives, the issue most likely to gain public and political attention over the next five years is:
A. Pension and retirement benefits.
B. Environmental issues, including climate change.
C. Demand for more ethically produced products.
D. Affordable cost of products for poor consumers.
Q:
(p. 29) Environmental intelligence is the acquisition of information gained from analyzing the multiple environments affecting organizations.
Q:
(p. 26) Failure to understand the beliefs and expectations of stakeholders:
A. Causes company's profits to increase in the short run.
B. Causes company's profits to decrease in the short run.
C. Causes the performance-expectations gap to grow larger.
D. Increases the chance of a corporate buy-out.
Q:
(p. 28) Environmental analysis is a method managers use to gather information about external issues and trends.
Q:
(p. 25) The emergence of a public issue indicates that:
A. A gap has developed between what stakeholders expect and what an organization is actually doing.
B. Technology is forcing ethics and business strategy closer together.
C. Consumers are unaware of how an organization's actions affect them.
D. All of the above.
Q:
(p. 27) Organizations always have full control of a public issue.
Q:
(p. 25) A public issue is also sometimes referred to as:
A. Social issues.
B. Sociopolitical issues.
C. Both A and B.
D. None of the above.
Q:
(p. 42) Companies are learning that it is important to take a strategic approach to the management of public issues, both domestically and globally.
Q:
(p. 26) Because the public issues that garner the most public attention change over time, sometimes emerging with surprising suddenness, companies do not waste time tracking them.
Q:
(p. 40) For stakeholder engagement to occur, both the business and the stakeholder must be motivated to work with one another to solve the problem.
Q:
(p. 26) Understanding and responding to changing societal expectations a business necessity.
Q:
(p. 40) Dialogue between a single firm and its stakeholders is always sufficient to address an issue effectively.
Q:
(p. 26) Emerging public issues are a risk and an opportunity.
Q:
(p. 35) Financially sound companies do not need to understand how a public issue is likely to evolve, and how it will affect.
Q:
(p. 25) A public issue exists when there is agreement between the stakeholders' expectations of what an institution should do and the actual performance of those businesses.
Q:
(p. 17) Departments, or offices, within an organization that reach across the dividing line that separated the company from groups and people in society are:
A. Inter-departmental divisions.
B. Geographical location areas.
C. Boundary-spanning departments.
D. Organizational maps.
Q:
(p. 19 - 20) Describe and give examples of the external forces that shape the relationship between business and society.
Q:
(p. 17) A stakeholder map is a useful tool because:
A. It enables mangers to see quickly how stakeholders feel about an issue.
B. It allows managers to evaluate what outcomes are likely regarding an issue.
C. It helps managers discourage or dissolve stakeholder coalitions.
D. Both A and B, but not C.
Q:
(p. 16) Stakeholders stand out to managers when they exhibit:
A. Integrity, power, and legitimacy.
B. Power, legitimacy, and urgency.
C. Integrity, loyalty, and power.
D. Legitimacy, loyalty, and urgency.
Q:
(p. 16 - 17) What is a stakeholder map? Why is it a useful tool?
Q:
(p. 16) When something stands out from a background, is seen as important, or draws attention it is:
A. Urgent.
B. Salient.
C. Powerful.
D. Legitimate.
Q:
(p. 12 - 16) Explain the process called stakeholder analysis. Include a description of its four key questions.
Q:
(p. 15) Stakeholders have been able to form international coalitions more successfully through use of:
A. Government regulation.
B. Community involvement.
C. Communications technology.
D. Unions.
Q:
(p. 9) Discuss why a manager should, or should not, be considered a stakeholder.