Q&A Hero

Q: The work of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission consists of formulatingequal employment opportunity(EEO) policy and approving litigation involved in maintaining equal employment opportunity. a. True b. False

Q: The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission consists of one commissioner from each state and a general counsel. a. True b. False

Q: TheEqual Employment Opportunity Commission(EEOC) is responsible for ensuring that covered employers comply with the intent of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act. a. True b. False

Q: Based on the Griggs case, requiring all salespersons to be six feet tall would have an adverse impact on Asians and women, limiting their employment opportunities. a. True b. False

Q: The Griggs case established the principle that statistical disparity among protected class members must be made in comparison to the relevant labor market. a. True b. False

Q: The Griggs case established the principle that employment practices must be related to the job. a. True b. False

Q: It is illegal for employers to deny sick leave for morning sickness or other pregnancy-relatedillnesses if sick leave is permitted for other medical conditions such as flu or surgical operations. a. True b. False

Q: Disparate treatment would arise when an employer hires men but not womenwith school-going children. a. True b. False

Q: A 35-year-old applicant who is denied employment based upon age may file a claim under the Age Discrimination in Employment Act if the organization hired a 21-year-old. a. True b. False

Q: The Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act states that the 180-day statute of limitations for filing an equal-pay lawsuit with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) resets with each new discriminatory paycheck an employee receives. a. True b. False

Q: The Four-Fifths Rule applies when the number of employees from a protected class is less than four-fifths of the number of employees hired from the class with the highest selection rate. a. True b. False

Q: When pursuing an adverse impact claim, an individual is alleging that the employer's selection practices have unintentionally discriminated against a protected group. a. True b. False

Q: The Civil Rights Act of 1991 states that employees who are sent abroad towork for U.S.-based companies are protected by U.S. antidiscrimination legislationgoverning age and disability and Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. a. True b. False

Q: No adverse impact exists if members of a protected class represent a significantly smaller percentage of the organization's workforce than the percentage found in the population of the surrounding community. a. True b. False

Q: Adverse impact refers to the unintentional rejection foremployment, placement, or promotion of a significantly higher percentage of membersof a protected class when compared with members of nonprotected classes. a. True b. False

Q: Proof of a direct relationship between selection instruments and performance must be established through validation studies by an independent firm. a. True b. False

Q: The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures require validated procedures for selecting and promoting employees but do not apply to dismissal, transfer, or demotion. a. True b. False

Q: When using a selection test, employers must be able to prove that the test bears a direct relationship to success on the job. a. True b. False

Q: The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures were designed to help employers, labor organizations, employment agencies, and licensing boards comply with the requirements of federal laws prohibiting employmentdiscrimination. a. True b. False

Q: To comply with the Immigration Reform and Control Act, employers must submit all completed Form I-9s to Immigration and Naturalization Service officers for approval. a. True b. False

Q: The Immigration Reform and Control Act requires employers to verify the legal rights of applicants to work in the U.S. a. True b. False

Q: Title VII of the Civil Rights Act provides employees with a statutory right to complete religious freedom in the workplace. a. True b. False

Q: The bona fide occupationalqualification (BFOQ) exception does not apply to discrimination based on national origin. a. True b. False

Q: Employers are guilty of sexual harassment if they permit their customers to sexually harass their employees. a. True b. False

Q: The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission(EEOC) considers an employer guilty of sexual harassment if the employer knew about harassment activity but failed to take any corrective action. a. True b. False

Q: Quid pro quo sexual harassment occurs when unwelcome sexual conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with job performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment. a. True b. False

Q: Dirty jokes, vulgar slang, nude pictures, swearing, and personal ridicule and insult constitute quid pro quo sexual harassment. a. True b. False

Q: An employer may be guilty of sexual harassment when an employee finds jokes, pictures, or language used by others offensive. a. True b. False

Q: HR managers need not be concerned about state fair employment practice laws since they are usually less stringent and less comprehensive than federal laws prohibiting discrimination. a. True b. False

Q: Executive Order 11246 requires all federal agencies and government contractors to develop affirmative action plans. a. True b. False

Q: The Civil Rights Act of 1964 allows employers to set different cut-off test scores on the basis of race and sex during the hiring process. a. True b. False

Q: Reasonable accommodation for a disability may include reassignment to a vacant position. a. True b. False

Q: U.S. government-owned corporations are exempted from the Civil Rights Act of 1964. a. True b. False

Q: A disabled person must have an obvious physical impairment or deformity to be considered disabled under the Americans with Disabilities Act. a. True b. False

Q: If people are regarded as having a disability, then they are protected under the Americans with Disabilities Act. a. True b. False

Q: Employers are legally required to treat pregnancy the same way they treat any other medical disability. a. True b. False

Q: The Pregnancy Discrimination Act requires pregnancy leave dates to be based on the individual employee's ability to work. a. True b. False

Q: The Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972 strengthened the enforcement power of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission(EEOC). a. True b. False

Q: If a pay disparity between the sexes exists, employers cannot legally lower the wages of one gender to comply with the law. a. True b. False

Q: An apparel store may not discriminate against a male applying for a job as a fitting room attendant. a. True b. False

Q: Courts have defined business necessity as a practice that is necessary to the safe and efficient operation of an organization. a. True b. False

Q: A religious organization is excluded from the coverage of the Civil Rights Act. a. True b. False

Q: The Civil Rights Act of 1964 established the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. a. True b. False

Q: State and local governments are exempted from the provisions of the Civil Rights Act and Equal Employment law. a. True b. False

Q: Title VII of the Civil Rights Act led to the institution of the Equal Pay Act. a. True b. False

Q: Title VII of the Civil Rights Act prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or age. a. True b. False

Q: Seniority systems can be used by companies to legally justify paying men more than women. a. True b. False

Q: Women and minority groups are referred to as protected classes. a. True b. False

Q: Managers cannot be sued for discrimination because they merely act as agents of their employer. a. True b. False

Q: Training in and knowledge of equal employment opportunity (EEO) laws are essential for managers and supervisors because organizations can be held accountable and legally responsible for their managers' decisions. a. True b. False

Q: Early nondiscrimination laws failed to give enforcement power to the agencies charged with upholding them. a. True b. False

Q: Employment discrimination began in the nineteenth century with the Civil Rights Act of 1866. a. True b. False

Q: The Equal Pay Act makes it illegal to discriminate against people in terms of thepay, employee benefits, and pension they earn based on their gender when theydo equal work. a. True b. False

Q: Equal employment opportunity refers to actions required of employers to correct past discrimination against minorities. a. True b. False

Q: Briefly describe the concept of organizational capability.

Q: What is the Balanced Scorecard?

Q: Describe the three key elements of the HR forecasting model.

Q: Describe the criteria necessary for firms to achieve sustained competitive advantage through people.

Q: Describe the basics of SWOT analysis.

Q: As companies diversify into new businesses, managers are inevitably faced with a make or _____ decision. a. buy b. lease c. forego d. substitute

Q: In the telephone industry, mobile phones and VOIP (Voice-over-the Internet Protocol) are examples of _____ for traditional firms. a. companions b. rivals c. substitutes d. supplements

Q: Analysis of external opportunities and threats is _____ stepof the strategic management process. a. the second b. the last c. an optional d. the penultimate

Q: The first step in strategic planning involves: a. analyzing the competition. b. interviewing potential employees. c. reviewing failed plans from the past in order to improve employee turnover rate. d. establishing a mission, vision, and values for an organization.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a cell of the Balanced Scorecard model? a. Financial b. Turnover c. Customer d. Process

Q: Cross-training and job rotations are intended to improve the _____ of an organization. a. coordination flexibility b. turnover capability c. organizational capability d. resource flexibility

Q: _____ is the ability of an organization to rapidly reallocate resources to new or changing needs. a. Coordination flexibility b. Predicted flexibility c. Organizational capability d. Turnover capability

Q: The capacity of an organization to continuously act and change in pursuit of sustainable competitive advantage is known as: a. coordination flexibility. b. predicted capability. c. organizational capability. d. turnover flexibility.

Q: A _____ is a measurement framework that helps managers translate strategic goals into operational objectives. a. benchmark b. trend analysis c. Balanced Scorecard d. cultural audit

Q: Measures of turnover costs do NOT include: a. separation costs. b. employee turnover costs. c. replacement costs. d. training program costs.

Q: According to 7-S framework analysis, which of following is NOT in the "Hard S"category? a. Strategy b. Shared values c. Structure d. Systems and processes

Q: Layoff decisions are usually based on: a. union membership. b. department ranking. c. seniority. d. favoritism.

Q: Shared values: a. are essential for an organization that aims to increase its employee turnover rate. b. act as the framework in which activities of employees are coordinated to reduce absenteeism. c. are formal and informal procedures that govern every day activity of the managers of an organization. d. act as guiding parameters for strategic planning.

Q: In the 7-S framework analysis, the "Hard S" category includes systems and processes which: a. lay out the route that the organization will take in the future to increase absenteeism. b. only includes the framework in which activities of employees are coordinated. c. include formal and informal procedures that govern the everyday activities of a firm. d. act as guiding parameters for strategic planning in order to increase employee turnover rate.

Q: An organizational structure: a. lays out the route that the organization will take in the future to increase absenteeism. b. is the framework in which activities of employees are coordinated. c. is the formal procedure that governs every day activity. d. is used to increase employee turnover rate.

Q: Cooperative strategies pursued by firms include: a. joint ventures. b. trend analysis. c. mergers. d. acquisitions.

Q: A _____ analysis is intended to help executives summarize the major facts and forecasts derived from external and internal analyses. a. gap b. Markov c. SWOT d. trend

Q: The process of identifying, developing, and tracking talented individuals so that they may eventually assume top-level positions is: a. target forecasting. b. predicted change. c. succession planning. d. replacement selection.

Q: Talent inventories can be used to develop _____, which list current jobholders. a. core values b. replacement charts c. trend models d. staffing tables

Q: A _____ is used to depict the number and percentage of employees of an organization in each job from year to year, with proportions of those who are promoted, demoted, transferred, or who exit the organization. a. staffing table b. Markov analysis c. skills inventory d. trend analysis

Q: A graphical representation of all organizational jobs along with the numbers of employees currently occupying those jobs and future employment requirements is called: a. a staffing table. b. an organization chart. c. a skills inventory. d. career planning.