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Q:
By far the greatest proportion of training is spent on rank-and-file employees and their supervisors.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Training is oriented toward broadening employees' individual skills for future responsibilities.
a. True
b. False
Q:
If employees consistently achieve their productivity objectives, it might be a signal that training is needed.
a. True
b. False
Q:
List the steps in the hiring process.
Q:
Compare and contrast the following four interview approaches: (1) nondirective interview, (2) structured interview, (3) situational interview, and (4) behavioral description interview.
Q:
Briefly explain the different types of employment tests.
Q:
Define the concepts of reliability and validity.
Q:
One of the drawbacks of pre-employment testing is that it creates the potential for _____.
a. cross-validation
b. legal challenges
c. employer misunderstanding
d. spurious correlation
Q:
Generally, _____ reference checks are preferable because they save time and provide for greater candor.
a. e-mail
b. fax
c. telephone
d. mail
Q:
State courts have ruled that companies can be held liable for _____ if they fail to do adequate background checks.
a. over recruiting
b. staff inflation
c. deceptive interviewing
d. negligent hiring
Q:
The "O" in KSAO stands for:
a. optimal.
b. outside.
c. other factors.
d. obligation.
Q:
A low selection ratio means:
a. the cutoff score for selection decisions will be relatively low.
b. there are very few qualified applicants.
c. only the most promising applicants will be hired.
d. little selectivity among applicants will be possible.
Q:
A selection model in which an applicant moves on to the next stage in the process on the condition that she or he satisfies a score criterion on previous parts of the process is referred to as a _____ model.
a. multiple cutoff
b. multiple hurdle
c. compensatory
d. contingency
Q:
A coach who recruits a basketball player who has superb shooting skills but lacks ball-handling and defensive skills is employing a _____ selection decision model.
a. multiple hurdle
b. compensatory
c. multiple cut-off
d. clinical
Q:
The approach to decision making that identifies candidates with the highest scores based on quantitative predictors is the:
a. personal judgment approach.
b. quantitative approach.
c. objective approach.
d. statistical approach.
Q:
A selection model that requires an applicant to achieve some minimum level of proficiency on all selection dimensions is referred to as a _____ model.
a. multiple cutoff
b. multiple hurdle
c. compensatory
d. contingency
Q:
Between the two approaches to selection decisions, the statistical approach is considered superior, although the _____ is the most commonly used.
a. qualitative
b. quantitative
c. clinical
d. subjective
Q:
HR staffs should consider all of the following factors during hiring decisions EXCEPT:
a. Should the individuals be hired according to their highest potential or according to the needs of the organization?
b. What effect will the applicants' family situation have on job performance?
c. To what extent should those applicants who are not qualified but are qualifiable be considered?
d. Should overqualified individuals be considered?
Q:
The "can-do" factors in selection decisions include:
a. skills.
b. personality.
c. values.
d. motivation.
Q:
The selection decision should focus on:
a. the strategic objectives of the organization.
b. the personality of the applicant and the supervisor.
c. the motivation of the applicant.
d. both "can-do" and "will-do" factors of the applicant.
Q:
All of the following questions may be considered appropriate during an interview EXCEPT:
a. Have you ever been arrested?
b. Do you have a legal right to work in the U.S.?
c. Are you physically able to perform the essential duties of the job?
d. Did you finish school?
Q:
Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question?
a. Have you ever worked under a different name?
b. If hired, can you prove your age?
c. What is your race?
d. What is your address?
Q:
____ interviews are attractive because of their convenience and low cost and they make it easier to interview people in different geographic areas.
a. Video
b. Behavioral description
c. Panel
d. Structured
Q:
Identify a benefit of panel interviews.
a. Cost-efficiency
b. Unilateral decision making
c. Longer decision-making period
d. Higher reliability because of multiple inputs
Q:
A behavioral description interview is more effective than a situational interview for:
a. lower-level positions.
b. higher-level positions.
c. recent college graduates.
d. first line supervisors.
Q:
"It is late at night before your scheduled vacation. You are all packed and ready to go to bed.You get a phone call from the plant asking you to come in and handle a problem that only you can address. What will you do?" This is an example of a ____ question.
a. behavioral description interview.
b. panel interview.
c. situational interview.
d. nondirective interview.
Q:
"Tell me about the last time you disciplined an employee" is an example of a:
a. behavioral description interview question.
b. panel interview question.
c. computer interview question.
d. closed response interview question.
Q:
An interview in which an applicant is given a hypothetical incident and is asked how he or she would respond to it is a:
a. computer interview.
b. panel interview.
c. situational interview.
d. nondirective interview.
Q:
The set of standardized questions used in a structured interview is based on:
a. job analysis.
b. hypothetical situations.
c. the applicant's area of specialization.
d. effective communication techniques.
Q:
The type of interview that allows the applicant maximum amount of freedom in determining the course of the discussion is the:
a. nondirective interview.
b. depth interview.
c. situational interview.
d. structured interview.
Q:
Interviews as a method of selection are popular for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
a. interviews are the most valid method of selection.
b. interviews are practical for dealing with a small number of applicants.
c. interviews function as a public relations tool.
d. interviewers have faith in their ability to make selection judgments.
Q:
Which of the following types of tests is increasingly being aided by computer simulations?
a. Personality tests
b. Physical ability tests
c. Cognitive ability tests
d. Work sample tests
Q:
The Uniform CPA Examination used to license certified public accountants is an example of a(n):
a. work sample test
b. job knowledge test
c. physical ability test
d. interest inventory
Q:
Personality tests:
a. easily demonstrate job-relatedness.
b. can inadvertently discriminate against individuals who would otherwise perform effectively.
c. measure intelligence.
d. measure an applicant's preference for certain activities over others.
Q:
The personality trait of neuroticism refers to:
a. the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable.
b. the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible.
c. the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous.
d. the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, and curious.
Q:
The personality trait of openness to experience refers to:
a. the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable.
b. the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible.
c. the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous.
d. the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, and curious.
Q:
The personality trait of agreeableness refers to:
a. the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable.
b. the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible.
c. the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous.
d. the degree to which someone is dependable and organized.
Q:
Which of the following interview questions is appropriate?
a. What is the origin of your name?
b. What color are your eyes?
c. Have you ever worked under a different name?
d. Are you a U.S. citizen?
Q:
Which of the following interview questions is appropriate?
a. Why did you leave your last job?
b. Are you a man or a woman?
c. How much do you weigh?
d. How tall are you?
Q:
According to a report by the U.S. Merit Systems Protection Board, a quasi-judicial agency that serves as the guardian of federal merit systems, structured interviews are _____ as nondirective interviews to predict on-the job performance.
a. twice as likely
b. half as likely
c. just as likely
d. four times as likely
Q:
Since the passage of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988:
a. drugs in the workplace are prohibited.
b. employers are prohibited from conducting random drug tests.
c. all employees must submit to drug tests on demand.
d. applicants and employees of federal contractors are subject to testing for illegal drug use.
Q:
A ratio of 0.10, for example, means that _____ percent of the applicants will be selected.
a. 0.1
b. 1
c. 10
d. 90
Q:
The Americans with Disabilities Act explicitly states that:
a. employers may not test for AIDS or the presence of HIV.
b. employers can screen out a prospective employeebecause he or she has an elevated risk of on-the-job injury.
c. employers may not test applicants for illegal drug use.
d. physical exams must be directly related to the requirements of the job.
Q:
In the _____ to decision making, those making the selection decision review all the data on the applicants.
a. statistical approach
b. clinical approach
c. subjective iterative approach
d. demonstrated approach
Q:
Honesty tests have been shown to validly predict all of the following employee outcomes EXCEPT:
a. job satisfaction.
b. theft.
c. absenteeism.
d. job performance.
Q:
The use of polygraph tests to screen applicants:
a. is a recommended procedure for all potential employees.
b. should be used only in high-security employment areas.
c. is prohibited by federal law for most private employers.
d. is prohibited by executive order for government contractors only.
Q:
According to studies, _____ of applicants test positive for drugs.
a. One-third
b. About one-quarter
c. Ten percent
d. Less than five percent
Q:
Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form?
a. Indicating whether the applicant has the legal right to work in the U.S.
b. Making inquiries about the ability of the applicant to perform job functions
c. High school and college attendance with dates
d. References' names, addresses, and phone numbers
Q:
Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form?
a. Asking the applicant to provide high school, college, and post-college attendance
b. Asking the applicant to disclose any prior arrests
c. Asking the applicant to provide names, addresses, and phone numbers of references
d. Asking the applicant to provide all work experience
Q:
The purposes served by application forms include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. eliminating the need for interviews.
b. determining if the applicant meets the minimum requirements.
c. providing the basis for interview questions.
d. offering sources for reference checks.
Q:
Intelligence, mechanical comprehension, and anxiety are examples of:
a. job requirements.
b. job characteristics.
c. theories.
d. constructs.
Q:
Constructs, or traits, include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. intelligence.
b. mechanical comprehension.
c. physical ability.
d. anxiety.
Q:
Which is the most direct and the least complicated type of validity to assess?
a. Content validity
b. Construct validity
c. Criterion-related validity
d. Concurrent validity
Q:
According to the "Big Five" factors, _____ refers to the degree to which someone is dependable and organized and perseveres in tasks.
a. conscientiousness
b. extroversion
c. agreeableness
d. neuroticism
Q:
The type of validity assumed to exist when a selection instrument adequately samples the knowledge and skills needed to perform a particular job is:
a. criterion-related validity.
b. content validity.
c. construct validity.
d. concurrent validity.
Q:
According to the "Big Five" factors, _____ means the degree to which someone is talkative, sociable, active, aggressive, and excitable.
a. extroversion
b. agreeableness
c. conscientiousness
d. neuroticism
Q:
_____ require the applicant to perform tasks that are actually a part of the work required on the job.
a. EEOC tests
b. Work sample tests
c. Job knowledge tests
d. Biographical data tests
Q:
Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question?
a. Where did you go to school?
b. Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
c. Where were you born?
d. Are you legally authorized to work in the United States?
Q:
A validity coefficient of -1.00 indicates a(n):
a. complete lack of correlation.
b. error in math.
c. perfect negative correlation.
d. perfect positive correlation.
Q:
Validity coefficients range from:
a. 0.00 to 1.00.
b. 1.00 to 10.00.
c. -5.00 to +5.00.
d. -1.00 to +1.00.
Q:
The results of a validation study are usually reported in the form of a:
a. correlation coefficient.
b. validity indicator.
c. scale from 1 to 10.
d. standard deviation.
Q:
Obtaining criterion data at about the same time as test scores (or other predictive information) is the technique used in:
a. predictive validity.
b. concurrent validity.
c. content validity.
d. correlational validity.
Q:
The process in which a test or battery of tests is administered to a different sample (drawn from the same population) for the purpose of verifying the results obtained from the original validation study is called:
a. redundancy validation.
b. repeat validation.
c. cross-validation.
d. inferential validation.
Q:
Giving applicants a clerical aptitude test and then tracking their performance six months later is an example of:
a. predictive validity.
b. concurrent validity.
c. content validity.
d. correlational validity.
Q:
Typically, establishing validity is a matter of comparing selection test scores:
a. to weighted scores on the candidates€ application.
b. to supervisors' performance ratings.
c. to previous scores done in a similar occupation.
d. before and after hiring.
Q:
The extent to which good performance on a test correlates with high marks on a performance review is an example of:
a. criterion-related validity.
b. clinical approach.
c. construct validity.
d. cross-validation.
Q:
The degree to which a test or selection procedure measures a person€s attributesis termed:
a. evidence.
b. accuracy.
c. reliability.
d. validity.
Q:
The Uniform Guidelines recognizes and accepts all of the following approaches to validation EXCEPT:
a. criterion-related validity.
b. content validity.
c. utility validity.
d. construct validity.
Q:
If two or more methods yield consistent results, the selection procedure can be described as:
a. having predictive validity.
b. being reliable.
c. being redundant.
d. having content validity.
Q:
The degree to which selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time is known as:
a. consistency.
b. reliability.
c. validity.
d. conformity.
Q:
Regardless of the selection methods used, it is essential that the selection procedure be:
a. lengthy and thorough.
b. quick and efficient.
c. reliable and valid.
d. a positive experience for applicants.
Q:
During the selection procedure, an applicant may be rejected:
a. after the preliminary interview.
b. after completing the application blank.
c. after selection test results are received.
d. at any step in the procedure.
Q:
The difference between the situational interview and the behavioral description interview is that:
a. there is no difference, the terms are synonymous.
b. the situational interview is for technical positions, while the behavioral description interview applies to upper-level management positions.
c. the situational interview is hypothetical, while the behavioral description interview is based upon actual experience.
d. the behavioral description interview is hypothetical, while the situational interview is based upon actual experience.
Q:
The interview remains a mainstay of selection because of all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. it absolves the organization of legal liability.
b. it is practical.
c. it serves public relations purposes.
d. interviewers maintain confidence in their judgments.
Q:
Which of the following should NOT be asked on an application form?
a. Application date
b. References
c. National origin
d. Criminal convictions
Q:
What is usually the first step in the selection process?
a. Reference check
b. Submission of resume
c. Interviews
d. Background checks
Q:
The type of information obtained from an applicant should be based on:
a. job specifications.
b. the biographical data set.
c. manning tables.
d. the HR manager's preferences.
Q:
The selection ratio is the ratio of the number of applicants to be selected to the total number of applicants.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The multiple hurdle model is a sequential strategy in which only the applicants with the highest scores at an initial test stage go on to subsequent stages.
a. True
b. False
Q:
With a compensatory model, a low score on one selection test may not eliminate a candidate if he or she gets a high score on another test.
a. True
b. False