Q&A Hero

Q: One major advantage of a behaviorally anchored rating scale is that it is possible to use a scale developed for one job to appraise individuals in another, unrelated job. a. True b. False

Q: €Behavioral methods specifically describe which actions should (or should not) be exhibited on the job. a. True b. False

Q: The effectiveness of the essay method is affected by the rater's writing skills. a. True b. False

Q: A major drawback of the essay method is that composing an essay that attempts to cover all of an employee's essential characteristics is very time-consuming. a. True b. False

Q: The forced-choice method of appraisal is less effective as a tool for developing employees. a. True b. False

Q: One of the benefits of the forced-choice method is the relatively small cost of establishing and maintaining its validity. a. True b. False

Q: €The mixed-standard scale method evaluates traits according to a single scale. a. True b. False

Q: Graphic rating scales include sets of statements between which the rater must choose, such as "works hard" vs. "works quickly." a. True b. False

Q: One of the potential drawbacks of a trait-oriented performance appraisal is that traits can be biased and subjective. a. True b. False

Q: Results-oriented approaches have become more popular because they focus on the measurable contributions that employees make to an organization. a. True b. False

Q: It is unrealistic to presume that one person can fully observe and evaluate an employee's performance. a. True b. False

Q: Feedback training for raters should include communicating effectively, diagnosing causes of performance problems, and setting goals. a. True b. False

Q: A similar-to-me error, like contrast, results in less than accurate performance ratings, but would not be considered discriminatory. a. True b. False

Q: Contrast errors are most likely when raters are required to rank employees in order from the best to the poorest. a. True b. False

Q: A similar-to-me error occurs when appraisers inflate the evaluations of people with whom they have something in common. a. True b. False

Q: A recency error is an error in which the appraisal is based largely upon the employee's most recent behavior as opposed to their behavior throughout the entire appraisal period. a. True b. False

Q: Having appraisals reviewed by a supervisor's supervisor creates unnecessary redundancy and may actually result in greater legal liability. a. True b. False

Q: Requiring raters to use a forced distribution reduces the chance of leniency or strictness errors. a. True b. False

Q: An error of central tendency is a performance-rating error in which all employees are more or less rated as average. a. True b. False

Q: A distributional rating error occurs when a single rating is skewed toward an entire group of employees. a. True b. False

Q: Reliability refers to the stability or consistency of a standard. a. True b. False

Q: Internal customers can provide extremely useful feedback for both developmental and administrative purposes. a. True b. False

Q: Team evaluations are conceptually just a collection of the individual appraisals of a work unit. a. True b. False

Q: One disadvantage of peer evaluations is the belief that they contain more biases and furnish less valid information than appraisals by superiors. a. True b. False

Q: Subordinate evaluations should be used primarily for developmental purposes. a. True b. False

Q: Subordinate evaluations are useful for rating on dimensions such as leadership ability, ability to delegate, and employee supportiveness. a. True b. False

Q: Self-evaluations should be used primarily for administrative purposes. a. True b. False

Q: Self-evaluations are often best used for developmental purposes rather than for administrative decisions. a. True b. False

Q: Criterion deficiency refers to the extent to which the standards of an appraisal relate to the strategic objectives of the organization in which they are applied. a. True b. False

Q: In most instances, one person can easily observe and evaluate an employee's performance. a. True b. False

Q: An appeals process is only necessary for administrative appraisals. a. True b. False

Q: Employees should be given a written copy of their job standards in advance of their performance evaluations. a. True b. False

Q: The HR department rarely has the primary responsibility for overseeing and coordinating a firm's performance management system. a. True b. False

Q: According to a Supreme Court ruling, performance appraisals are subject to the same validity criteria as selection procedures. a. True b. False

Q: Criterion contamination occurs when factors outside an employee's control influence his or her performance. a. True b. False

Q: € Criterion contamination occurs when different supervisors have different and inconsistent ratings of an employee's performance. a. True b. False

Q: Criterion deficiency occurs when performance standards have not been properly established and communicated to the employee. a. True b. False

Q: Criterion deficiency occurs when performance standards focus on a single criterion and exclude other important but less quantifiable performance dimensions. a. True b. False

Q: Managers may deflate performance ratings to make themselves look good as managers. a. True b. False

Q: €Performance evaluations are simply a logicalextension of the day-to-day performance management process. a. True b. False

Q: Performance management programscan be used for many purposes, includingpromotions, transfers, layoffs, and pay decisions. a. True b. False

Q: Studies have shown that employees who earn performance-based pay are more satisfied. a. True b. False

Q: Developmental purposes for performance appraisal include evaluating training programs and determining promotion candidates. a. True b. False

Q: Developmental purposes for performance appraisal include evaluating goal achievement and validating selection criteria. a. True b. False

Q: Developmental purposes for performance appraisal include identifying strengths and weaknesses and improving communication. a. True b. False

Q: The federal government began evaluating employees in 1842. a. True b. False

Q: €The two most common purposes of performance management programs are administrative and developmental. a. True b. False

Q: Most performance appraisals focus on long-term improvement, rather than short-term achievements. a. True b. False

Q: Managers need to constantly engage in a dialogue with their subordinates. a. True b. False

Q: Why is ethics training becoming more prevalent in companies?

Q: Explain on-the-job training. Additionally, provide some suggestions to overcome the drawbacks related to on-the-job training.

Q: Explain the PROPER method of on-the-job training.

Q: On-the-job training has three drawbacks. Briefly discuss these and the possible solutions suggested by experts in the field.

Q: Identify and discuss some of the desirable traits of a trainer.

Q: Explain the four components involved in designing a training program.

Q: _____ involves the use of a learning management system (LMS), often custom built for the firm by software vendors. a. Transfer of training b. E-learning c. On-the-job training d. Independent study

Q: Blogs and wikis are examples of tools used to facilitate learning via the _____ method. a. communities of practice b. simulation c. programmed learning d. mentoring

Q: Programmed instruction is also referred to as: a. mentoring. b. self-paced learning. c. simulation. d. observational learning.

Q: New college graduates often have a high desire for: a. structured jobs. b. close supervision. c. advancement. d. reassurance from supervisors.

Q: The first step in task analysis is to: a. define descriptive terms. b. refer other similar jobs. c. identify the skills required. d. review the job description.

Q: Government contractors and subcontractors with contracts that last for _____ or more and are for more than _____ are required by law to have business ethics codes and compliance policies and procedures. a. 30 days; $5 million b. 120 days; $5 million c. 30 days; $10 million d. 120 days; $10 million

Q: Which of the following includes the different types of diversity training? a. Equal employment and affirmative action b. Process and behavior c. Awareness building and skill building d. Conventional and non-conventional

Q: When comparing employee literacy levels of 1970 and today, it can be said: a. literacy levels have improved significantly. b. literacy levels are about the same. c. literacy levels have decreased significantly. d. it is impossible to make such a comparison.

Q: Basic skills training includes all of the following EXCEPT: a. computing. b. problem solving. c. speaking. d. modeling.

Q: _____ goes beyond just orienting new employees to their new environments and brings them into the organization's fold so that they truly feel as if they are a part of it. a. Cross-training b. Onboarding c. On-the-job training d. Benchmarking

Q: The process of measuring one's own services and practices against the recognized leaders in order to identify areas for improvement is _____. a. industry analysis b. modeling c. benchmarking d. environmental analysis

Q: The benefits of the training exceeds the cost of the program when: a. ROI=1. b. ROI<1. c. ROI>1. d. ROI 1.

Q: Utility refers to: a. the usefulness of a training program. b. the costs incurred for a training program. c. training effectiveness in terms of increased outcomes. d. the benefits derived from training relative to the costs incurred.

Q: _____ teaches individuals how to anticipate and cope with inevitable setbacks they will encounter on the job. a. Transfer of training b. Benchmarking c. Training effectiveness index d. Compensatory modeling

Q: _____ refers to how well employees apply what they have learned to their jobs. a. Transfer of training b. Learning c. Training effectiveness index d. Compensatory modeling

Q: Which of the following is NOT a component of behavior modeling? a. Learning points b. Practice and role-play c. Decisional emulation d. Feedback and reinforcement

Q: Training delivered to trainees when and where they need it to do their jobs is known as: a. cross-training . b. apprenticeship training. c. just-in-time training. d. on-the-job training.

Q: Which of the following training methods consists of having the trainee assume the attitudes and behavior of others? a. Job rotation b. Case study c. Simulation study d. Role-playing

Q: Which of the following methods is NOT used to provide on-the-job experience to managerial employees? a. Understudy assignments b. Outplacement c. Lateral transfer d. Coaching

Q: The method of providing a variety of hands-on work experiences to broaden the knowledge and understanding required to manage more effectively is known as: a. job rotation. b. job promotion. c. individual development. d. role modeling.

Q: When an employee is groomed to take over the supervisor's job by gaining experience in handling important functions of the job, it is known as: a. grooming. b. coaching. c. understudy assignment. d. role modeling.

Q: A manager who provides a continuing flow of instructions, comments, and suggestions to the subordinate is engaging in what type of on-the-job training? a. Case study b. Coaching c. Individual development d. Role modeling

Q: The method of training used to train personnel to operate aircraft, spacecraft, and other highly technical and expensive equipment is the: a. simulation method. b. classroom method. c. vestibule method. d. apprenticeship method.

Q: E-learning provide all the following benefits EXCEPT: a. bringing the training to employees. b. replacing conventional learning experiences. c. facilitating just-in-time skill development. d. being more cost effective.

Q: _____covers a wide variety of applications such as web and computer-based training (CBT), and social networks. a. Vestibule instruction b. Modeling c. Videodisc instruction d. E-learning