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Q:
Criticisms of Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA's) enforcement of rules include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. OSHA standards are outdated.
b. OSHA both sets and enforces its own standards.
c. OSHA enforces unevenly from on political administration to the next.
d. OSHA is overly zealous.
Q:
Frequently, employers will create a group consisting of representatives of various segments of an organization to work on safety-related issues. These groups are commonly referred to as:
a. safety committees.
b. monitors.
c. labor-management committees.
d. human resources assistants.
Q:
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) considersinvestigation of catastrophes, fatalities, and accidents that result in hospitalization of five or more employees as a _____ priority.
a. first-level
b. second-level
c. third-level
d. fourth-level
Q:
TheOccupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) considersinspection of imminent danger situations as a ____ priority.
a. first-level
b. second-level
c. third-level
d. fourth-level
Q:
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) considersinvestigation of valid employee complaints of alleged violations of standards or of unsafe or unhealthful working conditions as a ____ priority.
a. first-level
b. second-level
c. third-level
d. fourth-level
Q:
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) considers conductingspecial-emphasis inspections aimed at specific high-hazard industries, occupations, or substances that are injurious to health as a _____ priority.
a. first-level
b. second-level
c. third-level
d. fourth-level
Q:
Penalties for violation of safety rules by employees are usually stated in the:
a. employee handbook.
b. appointment letter of the employees.
c. Federal Register.
d. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) handbook.
Q:
The log of work-related injuries and illnesses is filed:
a. under OSHA Form 300.
b. in thefitness-for-duty roster.
c. in the Federal Register.
d. by an employer's insurance company.
Q:
Which of the following would NOT be considered a recordable case under the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)?
a. an employee killed on the job
b. a coal miner's black lung disease
c. an employee's broken leg suffered in a fall on a slippery spot on the plant floor
d. an employee's depression caused by family problems
Q:
Injury and Illness Report form is also known as:
a. OSHA Form 300.
b. Company Roster.
c. NIOSH Form 200.
d. Federal Illness Roster.
Q:
The following are methods of preventing health hazards in the workplace EXCEPT:
a. substituting materials.
b. issuing protective equipment.
c. hiring more employees than required for a task.
d. enclosing or isolating a process.
Q:
The average penalty imposed by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)for serious violations is now ____.
a. $2,000-$3,000
b. $3,000-$4,000
c. $6,000-$7,000
d. $10,000-$12,000
Q:
If a willful violation results in the death of an employee, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)can assess penalties
up to ____ for an individual or ____ for a corporation.
a. $50,000;$100,000
b. $100,000;$250,000
c. $250,000;$500,000
d. $500,000;$1 million
Q:
Problems associated with video display terminal use include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. visual difficulty.
b. muscle ache.
c. job stress.
d. lung disease.
Q:
Recommendations for minimizing the negative effects of video display terminal use do NOT include:
a. placing monitors 4-9 inches below eye level.
b. using screens with adjustable brightness and contrast.
c. placing monitors at a 45 degree angle to reduce glare.
d. using blinds or shades to reduce glare.
Q:
The best method to capitalize on the benefits of video display terminals while safeguarding employee health is:
a. placing the computer monitor to the side of the desk.
b. placing the computer screen 4 to 9 inches below eye level.
c. placing the computer screen 12 inches above eye level.
d. adjusting the brightness and contrast controls on the screen to be as high as possible.
Q:
The people who are least likely to get cumulative trauma disorder from their jobs are:
a. models.
b. meat cutters.
c. dental hygienists.
d. textile workers.
Q:
Injuries that result from workers using the same motions again and again are known as:
a. adjustment disorders.
b. bipolar disorders.
c. cumulative trauma disorders.
d. systematic trauma disorders.
Q:
The largest ever fine by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) was a(n) _____ penalty levied in 2009 against the oil giant BP after a 2005 explosion killed 15 workers and injured 170 others at a BP refinery in Texas.
a. $27 million
b. $87 million
c. $147 million
d. $217 million
Q:
Employee musculoskeletal injuries must be reported on OSHA Form:
a. 300.
b. 301.
c. 302.
d. 303.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a category of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration'svoluntary protection program?
a. Star
b. Achiever
c. Merit
d. Demonstration
Q:
In a Zogby poll, _____ of American adults said they had been bullied at work.
a. 18 percent
b. 35 percent
c. 55 percent
d. 68 percent
Q:
Which of the following organizations are NOT required to follow the Occupational Safety and Health Administration'sblood-borne pathogen standards?
a. hospitals
b. nursing homes
c. funeral homes
d. travel agencies
Q:
High risk work circumstances that are associated with workplace violence include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. delivery of passengers or services.
b. dealing with the exchange of money.
c. having employees work alone.
d. working in small numbers.
Q:
In terms of workplace violence, which of the following should organizations AVOID?
a. Holding managers responsible for preventing acts of violence
b. Analyzing the workplace to uncover areas of potential violence
c. Refraining from hiring persons with arrest records
d. Providing violence prevention training
Q:
Workplace violence warning signs include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. veiled threatening statements.
b. fascination with stories of violence.
c. concentration problems and excessive excuses.
d. chronic fatigue.
Q:
Studies show that _____ of night-shift workers report falling asleep at least once a week while on the job.
a. 10 to 30 percent
b. 30 to 50 percent
c. 50 to 70 percent
d. 70 to 90 percent
Q:
A survey of more than 2,000 employers conducted by the National Safety Council found that _____ percent had some type of cell-phone usage policy in place.
a. 26
b. 37
c. 46
d. 58
Q:
Alternative approaches to employee health include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. pre-employment medical examinations.
b. chiropractic treatments.
c. homeopathic treatments.
d. relaxation techniques and hypnosis.
Q:
The National Institute of Mental Health estimates that nearly ____ percent of the U.S. adult population experience depression each year.
a. 12
b. 7
c. 2
d. 27
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an outcome associated with depression?
a. Lower individual productivity
b. Decreased substance abuse
c. Increased morale problems
d. Increased absenteeism
Q:
____ is the decrease in functional activity accompanied by symptoms of low spirits, gloominess, and sadness.
a. Alcoholism
b. Tengriism
c. Moral dilemma
d. Depression
Q:
Most employers should recognize that alcoholism is a:
a. disease that follows a rather predictable course.
b. personal problem.
c. disease that always follows an unpredictable course.
d. predominantly blue-collar problem.
Q:
If a supervisor suspects that a subordinate has a severe drinking problem, the action to be avoided is:
a. carefully documenting evidence of declining performance.
b. confronting the employee with proof that his or her performance is deficient.
c. confronting the employee with his or her alcoholism during the first meeting and threatening with dismissal if the employee does not seek help.
d. assuring the employee that help is available without any penalty.
Q:
The requirements for federal contractors to take steps to ensure a drug-free workplace is found in:
a. the Occupational Safety and Health Act.
b. the Drug-Free Workplace Act.
c. the Executive Order 11246.
d. the Toxic Substances Control Act.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a recommendation for calming an angry employee?
a. Hold all conversations in private.
b. Recognize the employee's legitimate concerns or feelings.
c. Keep the discussion as subjective as possible.
d. Listen to the employee with an open mind and nonjudgmental behavior.
Q:
The U.S. Supreme Court ruled in _____ that employers may not bar women of childbearing age from certain jobs because of potential risk to their fetuses.
a. International Union v. Johnson Controls
b. Griggs v. Duke Power
c. Viands v. Sulliver Corp.
d. Perry v. Green
Q:
Stress basically comes from two basic sources which are:
a. physical and emotional activity.
b. mental impairment and outside influences.
c. family and friends.
d. emotional distress and work overload.
Q:
A study by Duke University researchers who examined the records of nearly 12,000university employees found that obese employees experienced medical costs thatwere more than _____ times higher than those of non-obese workers
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
Q:
Stress becomes when one begins to sense a loss of his or her feelings of security and adequacy. a. distress b. functional stress c. eustress d. fight-or-flight stress
Q:
A Duke study found that morbidly obese workers file ____ more workers' compensation claims and take longer to recover from injuries.
a. 25 percent
b. 45 percent
c. 65 percent
d. 85 percent
Q:
When dealing with stress, having too much to do in too short as time is known as:
a. high demand.
b. high effort.
c. low control.
d. low reward.
Q:
When dealing with stress, having to expend too much mental or physical energy over too long a period of time is known as:
a. high demand.
b. high effort.
c. low control.
d. low reward.
Q:
When dealing with stress, having too little influence over the way a job is done on a day-to-day basis is known as:
a. high demand.
b. high effort.
c. low control.
d. low reward.
Q:
Lack of personal fulfillment in a job may be a symptom of:
a. a burnout.
b. a fight-or-flight response.
c. a workplace disability.
d. eustress.
Q:
The most severe stage of distress is:
a. burnout.
b. shock.
c. back pain.
d. job loss.
Q:
Employer sponsored stress management programs are LEAST likely to include a segment on: a. coping skills. b. using alcohol to combat stress. c. time management. d. listening skills.
Q:
When dealing with stress, receiving inadequate feedback on performance and no recognition for a job well done is known as:
a. high demand.
b. high effort.
c. low control.
d. low reward.
Q:
A recordable case is any occupational death, illness, or injury to be recorded in _____.
a. OSHA Form 300
b. Labor Department Industrial Census
c. HR Annual Report
d. NIOSH Form 4000
Q:
Companies with award-winning ergonomics programs list all the following as common elements of success EXCEPT:
a. providing notice and training for employees.
b. planning and evaluating.
c. filing injury reports.
d. not bothering to involve one's employees in ergonomics.
Q:
The _____ department is usually responsible for the safety program for most employers.
a. finance
b. sales
c. HR
d. engineering
Q:
Under the Occupational Safety and Health Act, _____ are required to train employees as required by OSHA standards.
a. colleges and universities
b. employers
c. lawyers
d. consultants
Q:
Briefly discuss the power of Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) with respect to citations and penalties.
Q:
Briefly discuss Occupational Safety and Health Administration's established system of inspection priorities.
Q:
What is the role of supervisors in promoting workplace safety?
Q:
Explain the various types of workplace emergencies and how employers can effectively deal with such situations.
Q:
Why have 401(k) plans become so popular?
Q:
Explain the concept of work-life benefits. Name and discuss at least five of these benefits employers offer their employees.
Q:
Compare and contrast the risks to the employee in regard to defined-contribution and defined-benefit pension plans.
Q:
Describe some of the ways employers have been trying to contain health insurance costs.
Q:
Describe the requirements and provisions of the Family and Medical Leave Act.
Q:
Describe issues that employers have to consider while providing domestic partner benefits.
Q:
Explain why an organization may choose to develop a cafeteria benefits plan for its employees.
Q:
A major objective of the Pension Protection Act is to _____ 401(k) pension plans.
a. reduce the number of
b. alter the tax status of
c. limit to very small employers the use of
d. provide greater control over
Q:
Employers pay for workers' compensation insurance in ___________ states.
a. all
b. a majority of
c. large
d. heavily industrialized
Q:
Workers' compensation insurance covers certain work-related _____.
a. lawsuits
b. misunderstandings
c. pay inequities
d. illnesses
Q:
Workers' compensation insurance may be provided through private or _____ insurance.
a. state-funded
b. employee-prepaid
c. federally-funded
d. SNL-funded
Q:
In recent years, several companies have banded together to provide elder care in a cooperative arrangement referred to as a:
a. consortium.
b. limited partnership.
c. combined subsidiary.
d. hostel.
Q:
The Social Security Administration administers the ______________ program.
a. Childcare
b. ERISA
c. Medicare
d. SNL
Q:
Employer-sponsored child care programs and elder care programs are similar because:
a. under both programs, most of the caregivers are men.
b. both types of programs typically offer on-site care facilities to the employees who bring their wards to the workplace.
c. both programs try to maintain or increase productivity by assisting employees with their responsibilities outside the workplace.
d. both programs offer substantial income tax benefits to employees.
Q:
Mildly ill child care facilities provide:
a. tax benefits
b. medical supervision
c. a negative investment
d. telecommuting facilities for working parents with ill children
Q:
In 1996, Congress passed the ______, which provides that a same-sex domestic partner may not be treated as an employee's spouse for purposes of federal law. a. Defense of Marriage Act b. Employee Retirement Income Security Act c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act d. Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act
Q:
To help employees pay for the college expenses of their children and other family members, an increasing number of companies are offering _____.
a. additional overtime
b. contributory benefit plans
c. cafeteria plans
d. 529 college savings plans
Q:
Vesting guarantees:
a. withdrawal of benefits at any time.
b. automatic funding of pension plans.
c. accrued pension benefits at retirement age.
d. selection of pension options.
Q:
After an employee works for an employer for a certain period of time, the employee is entitled to the money in his or her pension plan. This employee is now: a. secured. b. endowed. c. vested. d. integrated.
Q:
Private pensions are subject to federal legislation under:
a. Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA).
b. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA).
c. Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act (TEFRA).
d. Retirement Equity Act (REA).
Q:
Annual interest earned on cash-balance pension plans are often tied to a:
a. 20-year Treasury rate.
b. 10-year Treasury rate.
c. 15-year Treasury rate.
d. 30-year Treasury rate.
Q:
A popular plan that offers employees an opportunity to save through payroll deductions and have their contributions matched by the employer is known as the:
a. 401(k) plan.
b. tax reduction plan.
c. ERISA benefit plan.
d. Individual Retirement Plan.
Q:
A pension plan that establishes the basis on which an employer will contribute to a pension plan is referred to as a:
a. contributory plan.
b. noncontributory plan.
c. defined-benefit plan.
d. defined-contribution plan.
Q:
A pension plan where the amount that an employee is to receive upon retirement is set forth in advance is referred to as a:
a. contributory plan.
b. noncontributory plan.
c. defined-benefit plan.
d. defined-contribution plan.