Q&A Hero

Q: The first stage of contract administration is ________. A) implementing the contract B) interpreting the contract C) getting contract terms to union members and management D) monitoring activities E) isolating potential problems

Q: Once a contract is agreed upon and ratified, it must be ________. A) sanctioned by both parties B) recognized C) put to a union vote D) documented E) administered

Q: A labor union will not have a binding contract until it is submitted and ________. A) arrives at a tentative agreement B) receives management approval C) goes to binding arbitration D) sent to a mediation board E) rank-and-file members vote to approve

Q: The first step in the collective bargaining process for labor and management is to ________. A) prepare for negotiation B) negotiate C) investigate D) take a preliminary vote E) open discussion

Q: Describe the objectives and scope of the collective bargaining process.

Q: If employees become dissatisfied with a certified union they may petition the National Labor Relations Board to conduct a decertification election.

Q: Most people hear or read about collective bargaining only when a contract is about to expire or when negotiations break down.

Q: The four issues that appear consistently throughout all labor contracts include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) wages B) location C) terms and conditions of employment D) hours E) grievance procedure

Q: A process for negotiating a union contract and for administrating the contract after it has been negotiated is ________. A) collective bargaining B) grievance procedure C) mediation D) arbitration E) conciliation

Q: Identify the efforts that are commonly made by a union to organize a group of employees, and explain how collective bargaining proceeds with labor and management.

Q: One hundred percent of workers must sign authorization cards before efforts to organize a union may begin.

Q: Although organizing drives may be unsuccessful, when unions achieve their goal to become the exclusive bargaining agent, the next step is to ________. A) hold a certification election B) enter mediation C) negotiate the contract D) vote to accept the contract E) administer the contract

Q: On some occasions, union members may become so dissatisfied with the union's actions in representing them that they want to turn to another union or return to their nonunion status. In either case, the rank-and-file members petition the NLRB to conduct a(n) ________. A) mediation B) representation decertification election C) certification election D) conciliation E) arbitration

Q: When a majority vote is received in a representation certification election, the NLRB certifies the union and recognizes it as the exclusive ________. A) union B) union steward C) resolution agent D) negotiating organization E) bargaining unit

Q: Discuss the importance of the Wagner Act and the Taft-Hartley Act.

Q: The Racketeering Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO) of 1970 serves a vital purpose in labor relations and its primary emphasis with respect to labor unions is to eliminate any influence exerted on unions by members of Congress.

Q: Also known as the Labor and Management Reporting and Disclosure Act, the ________ Act protects union members from possible wrongdoing on the part of their unions. Its thrust is to require all unions to disclose their financial statements. A) Railway Labor B) Taft-Hartley C) Norris-LaGuardia D) Landrum-Griffin E) Labor-Management Relations

Q: A government agency that assists labor and management in settling bargaining disputes is ________. A) Occupation and Safety Board B) National Labor Relations Board C) Impasse Resolution Service D) Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service E) American Arbitration Association

Q: The concept that parties in a negotiation must come to the bargaining table ready, willing, and able to meet and deal, open to proposals made by the other party, and with the intent to reach a mutually acceptable agreement is referred to as bargaining ________. A) for solidarity B) in good conscience C) for power D) for control E) in good faith

Q: Until passage of the Taft-Hartley Act, the ________ was dominant in labor contracts. Under this arrangement, an individual would join the union, be trained by the union, and sent to work for an employer by the union. A) controlled shop B) closed shop C) labor shop D) union shop E) restricted shop

Q: Specifying unfair labor union practices is the major purpose of the ________. A) Taft-Hartley Act B) National Labor Relations Board C) Right-to-Work Laws D) Wagner Act E) Railway Labor Act

Q: The entity that was given responsibility for determining appropriate bargaining units, conducting elections to determine union representation, and preventing or correcting employer actions that can lead to unfair labor practice charges is the ________. A) Department of Labor B) National Management Labor Board C) Human Relations Board D) American Arbitration Association E) National Labor Relations Board

Q: The ________ Act specifically requires employers to bargain in good faith over mandatory bargaining issues. A) Railway Labor B) Norris-La Guardia C) Wagner D) Landrum-Griffin E) Labor-Management Relations

Q: The Wagner Act guarantees workers the right to ________ and join unions, to bargain collectively, and to act in concert to pursue their objectives. A) strike B) organize C) protest D) work E) labor

Q: A common provision in union security arrangements is a process called the dues checkoff.

Q: A common provision in union security arrangements is a process called the ________ when an employer withholds union dues from members' paychecks. A) payroll deduction B) union dues C) dues checkoff D) dues remittance E) employee remittance

Q: A situation in which employees are free to choose whether or not to join the union is a(n) ________ shop security agreement. A) closed B) agency C) dues checkoff D) union E) open

Q: An agreement that requires nonunion employees to pay the union a sum of money equal to union fees and dues as a condition of continuing employment is referred to as a(n) ________ shop. A) agency B) union C) dues checkoff D) open E) closed

Q: The ________ shop agreement stipulates that employers, although free to hire whomever they choose, may retain only union members. A) union B) dues checkoff C) closed D) agency E) open

Q: What do employees seek to gain when they join a union?

Q: By being unionized, employees are often able to obtain higher wages and benefit packages than they would be able to negotiate individually.

Q: In 2013 the union membership rate, the percent of wage and salary workers who were members of a union, reported by the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, was 25 percent.

Q: Employees join unions for the following reasons EXCEPT ________. A) to influence work rules B) compulsory membership C) higher wages and benefits D) greater job security E) to avoid conflict

Q: For many supervisors, activities in a unionized organization consist chiefly of following procedures and policies laid out in the ________. A) employee handbook B) labor contract C) policy manual D) union bylaw document E) supervisor handbook

Q: Unions have a major effect on some important sectors of the economy. Gains made by unions in one industry often ________ other nonunionized sectors of the economy. A) alienate B) conflict with C) have no effect on D) spill over into E) neutralize gains in

Q: A(n) ________ is an organization of workers, acting collectively, seeking to promote and protect its mutual interests through collective bargaining. A) team B) institute C) labor unit D) union E) workforce

Q: How can a supervisor foster innovation?

Q: Research finds that champions have common personality characteristics including which of the following? A) stubbornness B) honesty C) tolerance D) persistence E) humor

Q: Of the variables found to stimulate innovation within the human resource category, innovative organizations promote ________. A) training and development B) from within the organization C) team building D) employee teams E) hierarchical structures

Q: An example of an external force that creates a need for change is ________. A) new equipment B) employee attitudes C) technology D) long range plans E) modification of organization's strategy

Q: An alteration of an organization's environment, structure, technology, or people is referred to as ________. A) expansion B) change C) reduction D) improvement E) modification

Q: When supervisors, in cooperation with company officials, make sweeping changes in departments to produce positive change that effort is called ________. A) organization development B) strategic planning C) organization downsizing D) restructuring E) reorganization

Q: An example of an internal force that creates a need for change is ________. A) government regulations B) technology C) economic forces D) the marketplace E) workforce composition

Q: In a stable organization where supervisors have been in their positions for years, there might be a need to ________ to retain more ambitious employees, affording them more scheduling flexibility and possibly some upward mobility. A) restructure jobs B) increase pay C) transfer employees to a different department D) consult with managers E) ask the HR department for advice

Q: People who act as catalysts and assume the responsibility for overseeing the change process are called ________. A) overseers B) change agents C) stockholders D) stakeholders E) commanders

Q: The traditional three-step change process requires ________, changing to a new state, and refreezing. A) team cooperation B) unanimous team approval C) management approval D) unfreezing the status quo E) coordinating change-related activities

Q: Outside consultants hired by an organization to provide advice and assistance for major system-wide changes may be at a disadvantage because they have an inadequate understanding of the organization's ________. A) customers B) suppliers C) product D) processes E) culture

Q: The status quo can be considered an equilibrium state. To move from this equilibrium, unfreezing is necessary. One way this can be achieved is ________. A) decreasing restraining forces B) team cooperation C) management approval D) assessing the situation E) supervisor commitment

Q: In the three-step process of change, the step in which we stabilize the new situation by balancing the driving and restraining forces is known as ________. A) unfreezing B) solidifying C) strengthening D) freezing E) refreezing

Q: The traditional view of change might have been appropriate to the relatively calm environment that most organizations faced ________. A) in the early 1900s B) from the 1920s to the 1940s C) from the 1940s to the 1960s D) from the 1960s to the 1970s E) in the late 1900s

Q: The change model that takes into consideration that environments are both uncertain and dynamic is the ________. A) mechanistic model B) conservative view C) traditional view D) contemporary view E) bureaucratic model

Q: Many of today's supervisors have to learn to manage in a world of constant ________. A) stability B) change C) complacency D) independence E) stagnation

Q: One of the most well documented findings in the study of people at work is that individuals ________. A) resist discipline B) resist change C) hope for change D) dislike work E) welcome change

Q: A supervisor's job would be simplified if no new products were introduced, government regulations were never modified, technology never changed, or employees' needs didn't shift.

Q: According to the traditional three-step description of the change process, successful change requires unfreezing the status quo, changing to a new state, and refreezing the new change to make it permanent.

Q: Identify the ways the traditional change process model can move through unfreezing the status quo, changing to a new state, and refreezing the new change.

Q: Employee resistance to change can surface in several forms"overt, implicit, immediate, or ________. A) clandestine B) subversive C) covert D) explicit E) deferred

Q: One type of resistance effort that is subtle and difficult for a supervisor to recognize is the ________ effort. A) overt B) implicit C) deferred D) immediate E) subversive

Q: Employees often fear that any change in their work environment may reduce their ________. A) work hours B) employment status C) unemployment income D) job security or income E) power

Q: The reasons that people resist change include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) threat to job and income B) threat to the ego C) ingrained habits D) threat to established power relationships E) fear of the unknown

Q: Explain the reasons people resist change.

Q: The interpersonal relationships that are part of a person's job seldom play an important role in satisfying the individual's social needs.

Q: Individuals shape the world through their perceptions.

Q: Of the reasons given for resisting change, which of the following threatens the specialized skills held by an employee? The threat to ________. A) established power relationships B) position in team C) expertise D) interpersonal relationships E) personal development

Q: ________ takes a long time to develop; it is fragile and it can be easily destroyed. A) Innovation B) Communication C) Cooperation D) Trust E) Resistance

Q: Techniques to overcome resistance to change include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) open channels of communication B) build trust C) provide incentives D) announce change to the public E) involve employees

Q: ________ is particularly effective in reducing threats created by ambiguity. A) Employee involvement B) Offering incentives C) Opening communication channels D) Building trust E) Changing attitudes

Q: Resistance to change can be reduced through communication with employees to help them see the logic of the change.

Q: Resistance to change surfaces in many forms. It is most difficult for supervisors to deal with resistance when it is overt.

Q: When the grapevine is active with rumors of cutbacks and layoffs, what type of communication may a supervisor use to calm the workforce? A) frequent B) extensive C) honest D) ambiguous E) private

Q: Even if employees have not been involved in a change from the beginning, they will usually actively support the change.

Q: A pay increase, a new title, flexible work hours, or increased job autonomy are examples of incentives that can help reduce resistance to change.

Q: Describe the techniques supervisors can implement to eliminate resistance to change.

Q: Innovations are evaluative statements or judgments concerning objects, people or events.

Q: After identifying an attitude a supervisor wants to change, it is important to ________. A) explain why the attitude is wrong B) unfreeze the attitude C) offer an alternative attitude D) determine what sustains the attitude E) support the attitude

Q: Employee evaluative statements or judgments concerning objects, people, or events reflect their ________. A) social responsibility B) attitudes C) ethics D) tenets E) ideals

Q: The process of turning a creative idea into a useful product, service, or method of operation is called ________. A) production B) vision C) innovation D) creativity E) processing

Q: The ability to combine ideas in a unique way or to make unusual associations between ideas is called ________. A) novelty B) analogy C) creativity D) consonance E) vision

Q: The innovative organization is characterized by the ability to channel its ________ into useful outcomes. A) training and development program B) teamwork C) vision D) passion E) creative juices

Q: Creativity can be viewed as a fourfold process consisting of all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) stimulation B) innovation C) incubation D) inspiration E) perception