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Q:
Executive-base salaries represent between 10 and 20 percent of total annual compensation.
a. True
b. False
Q:
An analysis of executive salaries shows that the largest portion of executive pay is received in long-term incentive rewards and bonuses.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The federal wage law that may require government contractors to pay overtime for work more than eight hours a day is:
a. Equal Pay Act.
b. Davis-Bacon Act.
c. Fair Labor Standards Act.
d. Walsh-Healy Act.
Q:
The major provisions of which act are concerned with minimum wage rates and overtime payments, child labor, and equal rights?
a. Equal Pay Act
b. Davis-Bacon Act
c. Fair Labor Standards Act
d. Walsh-Healy Act
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a component of the Consumer Price Index?
a. Clothing
b. Automobiles
c. Charges for medical services
d. Transportation fares
Q:
The Fair Labor Standards Act prohibits the employment of those between the ages of _____ in hazardous occupations such as mining, logging, and meatpacking.
a. 14 and 21
b. 16 and 18
c. 16 and 21
d. 18 and 21
Q:
The simplest and oldest system of job evaluation is the _____, which arrays jobs on the basis of their relative worth.
a. job valuation system
b. point system
c. job classification system
d. job ranking system
Q:
A _____ is a system of job evaluation in which jobs are classified and grouped according to a series of predetermined wage grades.
a. point system
b. job valuation system
c. job classification system
d. job ranking system
Q:
The Equal Pay Act prohibits wage discrimination based on:
a. seniority.
b. gender.
c. merit.
d. individual incentive.
Q:
A job evaluation system that seeks to measure a job's worth through its value to the organization is known as:
a. job ranking.
b. job classification.
c. work valuation.
d. the point system.
Q:
The _____ collects and displays the results for all the measures that a company uses to monitor and compare compensation among internal departments or units.
a. red circle rate
b. competence-based pay system
c. compensation scorecard
d. point system
Q:
According the compensation scorecard, functions with a compa ratio below ______ are considered to be paying their employees below the company norm.
a. 25 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 75 percent
d. 100 percent
Q:
The Fair Labor Standards Act permits employers to pay a "training wage" of _____ per hour for employees younger than the age of twenty during their first ninety days of employment, provided their employment does not displace other workers.
a. $5.26
b. $5.76
c. $6.16
d. $6.56
Q:
A performance rating error in which the rater is reluctant to give employees either extremely high or extremely low ratings is referred to as a(n):
a. recency error.
b. error of central tendency.
c. leniency or strictness error.
d. halo error.
Q:
One advantage of peer evaluations is that:
a. peers are less politically motivated than supervisors.
b. peers may furnish more accurate and valid information than supervisors.
c. peers may work harder to help other employees improve performance.
d. peers are often partially responsible for the performance of other co-workers.
Q:
Self-appraisals are best for:
a. administrative purposes.
b. developmental purposes.
c. promotional purposes.
d. regulatory purposes.
Q:
Performance-relatedbehaviors such as leadership ability, ability to delegate, and employee supportivenessmay best be appraised by:
a. the manager/supervisor.
b. peers.
c. subordinates.
d. the management team.
Q:
In most instances, who is in the best position to perform the function of evaluating an employee's performance?
a. The HR personnel
b. The employee's supervisor
c. The employee
d. Co-workers
Q:
In light of recent court rulings, HR managers suggest that performance evaluations should meet all of the following legal guidelines EXCEPT:
a. performance ratings must be job-related.
b. employees must beprovided with clear, written job standards in advance of theirevaluations.
c. performance evaluation should rarely be tied to compensation decisions.
d. supervisors should be trained to use the evaluation form correctly.
Q:
The Supreme Court ruling states that:
a. vague performance standards can be acceptable when clearly written.
b. organizations should have carefully defined and measurable performance standards.
c. while performance standards should be somewhat specific, there should be room for individual interpretation.
d. descriptions of traits such as attitude and cooperation are acceptable performance standards.
Q:
Reliability in performance appraisal is measured by:
a. correlating two sets of ratings made byasingle rater or by two different raters.
b. correlating the ratings of an employee at two different points in time.
c. linking performance standards to organizational goals.
d. quantifiable performance standards.
Q:
If a performance standard is found to be stable or consistent over time, it is said to be:
a. free from contamination.
b. relevant.
c. reliable.
d. valid.
Q:
If the performance evaluations that salespeople receive are based solely on sales revenue to the exclusion of other important factors, the performance management system suffers from:
a. criterion contamination.
b. lack of reliability.
c. criterion deficiency.
d. organizational politics.
Q:
Freedom from criterion deficiency of performance appraisals refers to the extent to which:
a. standards relate to the overall objectives of the organization.
b. standards capture the entire range of an employee's responsibilities.
c. individuals tend to maintain a certain level of performance over time.
d. factors outside the employee's control can influence performance.
Q:
Contrast errors are most likely when raters are required to rank employees in order from the best to the poorest.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A recency error is an error in which the appraisal is based largely upon the employee's most recent behavior as opposed to their behavior throughout the entire appraisal period.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Having appraisals reviewed by a supervisor's supervisor creates unnecessary redundancy and may actually result in greater legal liability.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Requiring raters to use a forced distribution reduces the chance of leniency or strictness errors.
a. True
b. False
Q:
An error of central tendency is a performance-rating error in which all employees are more or less rated as average.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A distributional rating error occurs when a single rating is skewed toward an entire group of employees.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Reliability refers to the stability or consistency of a standard.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Internal customers can provide extremely useful feedback for both developmental and administrative purposes.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Team evaluations are conceptually just a collection of the individual appraisals of a work unit.
a. True
b. False
Q:
One disadvantage of peer evaluations is the belief that they contain more biases and furnish less valid information than appraisals by superiors.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Subordinate evaluations should be used primarily for developmental purposes.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Since the passage of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988:
a. drugs in the workplace are prohibited.
b. employers are prohibited from conducting random drug tests.
c. all employees must submit to drug tests on demand.
d. applicants and employees of federal contractors are subject to testing for illegal drug use.
Q:
The Americans with Disabilities Act explicitly states that:
a. employers may not test for AIDS or the presence of HIV.
b. employers can screen out a prospective employeebecause he or she has an elevated risk of on-the-job injury.
c. employers may not test applicants for illegal drug use.
d. physical exams must be directly related to the requirements of the job.
Q:
In the _____ to decision making, those making the selection decision review all the data on the applicants.
a. statistical approach
b. clinical approach
c. subjective iterative approach
d. demonstrated approach
Q:
Honesty tests have been shown to validly predict all of the following employee outcomes EXCEPT:
a. job satisfaction.
b. theft.
c. absenteeism.
d. job performance.
Q:
The use of polygraph tests to screen applicants:
a. is a recommended procedure for all potential employees.
b. should be used only in high-security employment areas.
c. is prohibited by federal law for most private employers.
d. is prohibited by executive order for government contractors only.
Q:
According to studies, _____ of applicants test positive for drugs.
a. One-third
b. About one-quarter
c. Ten percent
d. Less than five percent
Q:
Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form?
a. Indicating whether the applicant has the legal right to work in the U.S.
b. Making inquiries about the ability of the applicant to perform job functions
c. High school and college attendance with dates
d. References' names, addresses, and phone numbers
Q:
Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form?
a. Asking the applicant to provide high school, college, and post-college attendance
b. Asking the applicant to disclose any prior arrests
c. Asking the applicant to provide names, addresses, and phone numbers of references
d. Asking the applicant to provide all work experience
Q:
The purposes served by application forms include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. eliminating the need for interviews.
b. determining if the applicant meets the minimum requirements.
c. providing the basis for interview questions.
d. offering sources for reference checks.
Q:
Intelligence, mechanical comprehension, and anxiety are examples of:
a. job requirements.
b. job characteristics.
c. theories.
d. constructs.
Q:
Constructs, or traits, include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. intelligence.
b. mechanical comprehension.
c. physical ability.
d. anxiety.
Q:
Glass ceiling audits avoid or prevent fines by the government.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Glass ceiling audits are conducted by the Department of Labor to identify practices that hinder the upward mobility of women and minorities.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The glass ceiling represents practical barriers to entry-level employment for women and minorities.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Mentoring functions can be formal or informal.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Legally, a mentor should be selected exclusively for career development purposes.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Fast-track programs are employed in some organizations as a way to retain young managers with high potential.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Some organizations make career counseling a part of the annual performance appraisal.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Passive job seekers are people who are not looking for jobs but could be persuaded to take new ones given the right opportunity.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Looking on the Internet is the most commonly used search tactic by job seekers.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Taking a job as a manager may result in a professional employee being promoted out of something they were good at doing.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Dual career paths provide for progression in special areas with compensation that is comparable to that received by managers at different levels.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A statement of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform a job is called a:
a. job requirement.
b. job specification.
c. job position.
d. job objective.
Q:
A job specification is:
a. a group of related activities and duties.
b. a set ofdifferent duties and responsibilities performed by one employee.
c. a statement of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required of a person to perform a job.
d. a statement of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job to be performed.
Q:
An organization-specific list of tasks and their descriptions used as a basis to identify components of a job is known as:
a. functional job analysis.
b. the critical incident method.
c. task inventory analysis.
d. competency-based analysis.
Q:
A job analysis method by which important job tasks are identified for job success is known as:
a. functional job analysis.
b. the critical incident method.
c. task inventory analysis.
d. the position analysis questionnaire system.
Q:
A job analysis approach that utilizes an inventory of the various types of work activities that can constitute any job is known as:
a. functional job analysis.
b. the critical incident method.
c. task inventory analysis.
d. the position analysis questionnaire system.
Q:
Telecommuting is effective in retaining valued employees.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Job sharing is effective with employees who desire to phase into retirement.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Employees participate in flextime when they do entirely different jobs on a rotating schedule.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The Fair Labor Standards Act requires the payment ofovertime to regular workers who work more than eight hours in a day.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Employers using the compressed workweek may be required to pay overtime to employees under the Fair Labor Standards Act.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A compressed work week includes anything less than 40 hours worked per week.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which law prohibits federal contractors from discriminating against disabled individuals in any program or activity receiving federal financial assistance and requires federal contractors to develop affirmative action plans to hire and promote disabled people?
a. The Americans with Disabilities Act
b. The Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973
c. Executive Order 11246
d. Executive Order 11478
Q:
In recent years, the number of age discrimination complaints filed with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) has shown:
a. a slow decline.
b. a dramatic increase.
c. a steady increase.
d. a rapid decline.
Q:
A "national origin group" is defined as a group of people sharing a common:
a. language, culture, ancestry, and/or similar social characteristics.
b. birthplace other than the U.S.
c. occupation.
d. education.
Q:
In which Supreme Court decision involving an invalidated employment test for firemen did the Court state: "once the process has been established and employers have made clear their selection criteria, they may not then invalidate the test results, thus upsetting an employee's legitimate expectation not to be judged on the basis of race."?
a. Ricci v. DeStefano
b. Albemarle Paper Co. v. Moody
c. University of California Regents v. Bakke
d. United Steelworkers of America v. Weber
Q:
In which of the following decisions did the Supreme Court not endorse all voluntary affirmative action programs, but it gave an important push to programs voluntarily implemented and designed to correct past racial imbalances?
a. Griggs v. Duke Power
b. Albemarle Paper Co. v. Moody
c. University of California Regents v. Bakke
d. United Steelworkers of America v. Weber
Q:
In which of the following decisions did the Supreme Court state that affirmative action programs are not illegal per se as long as rigid quota systems were not specified for different protected classes?
a. Griggs v. Duke Power
b. Albemarle Paper Co. v. Moody
c. University of California Regents v. Bakke
d. United Steelworkers of America v. Weber
Q:
The basic steps in developing an effective affirmative action plan include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. issuing a written EEO policy and affirmative action statement.
b. surveying present minority and female employment by department and job classification.
c. establishing an internal audit and reporting program to evaluate progress.
d. establishing a quota system and timetable for hiring.
Q:
Affirmative action requires employers to:
a. fill minority quotas.
b. establish the validity of hiring procedures.
c. provide additional facilities to employees with disabilities.
d. develop a plan of action to correct areas of past discrimination.
Q:
Legally, an affirmative action program is required when:
a. a firm has 25 or more employees.
b. a firm wants to expand its workforce.
c. a firm's union-management contract is being negotiated.
d. a firm has a federal contract exceeding $50,000.
Q:
Affirmative action compliance is reviewed by the:
a. Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs.
b. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
c. Supreme Court.
d. Justice Department.
Q:
A comprehensive training program to prevent discrimination would include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. understanding the prohibitions of EEO laws.
b. how to respond to complaints of discrimination.
c. procedures for investigating complaints.
d. standards for employee conduct.
Q:
Describe the three key elements of the HR forecasting model.