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Q:
Single-use plans are designed for a ________.
A) specific event and activity
B) broad event and activity
C) critical event and activity
D) broad activity or time period
E) specific activity or time period
Q:
Standing plans allow managers to ________.
A) create production bottlenecks
B) save time
C) promote narrow spans-of-control
D) be ineffective
E) create downsizing
Q:
Plans that can be used over and over again by managers faced with recurring activities are ________.
A) procedural
B) self-directing and self-controlling applications
C) standing
D) single-use
E) production bottlenecks
Q:
The time dimension of intermediate-term planning is approximately ________.
A) 5 -10 years
B) 1 month to 1 year
C) 10 - 15 years
D) 0 - 30 days
E) 1 - 5 years
Q:
For the most part, tactical planning is done at what level of management?
A) sales directors
B) supervisors
C) operative employees
D) middle managers
E) top management
Q:
Unilever is an example of a(n) ____ corporation.
a. transnational
b. international
c. multinational
d. global
Q:
A corporation that attempts to simultaneously achieve local responsiveness and global efficiency is a(n) ____ corporation.
a. transnational
b. international
c. multinational
d. global
Q:
Matsushita is a(n) ____ corporation.
a. transnational
b. international
c. multinational
d. global
Q:
A corporation that treats the world market as a whole and tries to combineits activities in variouscountries to maximize efficiency is a(n) ____ corporation.
a. transnational
b. international
c. multinational
d. global
Q:
A multinational firm that has pulled control of its operations back into the home office is a(n) ____ corporation.
a. transnational
b. international
c. multinational
d. global
Q:
An organizational firm that has fully autonomous units operating in multiple countries is:
a. an international corporation.
b. a multidomestic corporation.
c. a transnational corporation.
d. a global enterprise.
Q:
A domestic firm that has leveraged its existing capabilities to penetrate overseas markets is a(n) ____ corporation.
a. transnational
b. international
c. multinational
d. global
Q:
Codetermination refers to the training an expatriate manager receives before an international assignment.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Only 20 percent of people globally are covered by any sort of social insurance programs.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The International Labour Organization enforces international labor standards.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In some countries, unions have alliances with other organizations like political parties, churches, or governments.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A multidomestic corporation is essentially a domestic firm that builds on its existing capabilities to penetrate overseas markets.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Discuss the various contemporary challenges faced by labor organizations labor. How are unions attempting to meet these challenges?
Q:
List some typical and some progressiveclauses found in a labor agreement.
Q:
Explain some of the issues that should be addressed by the employer's bargaining strategy.
Q:
Briefly discuss some of the aggressive organizing tactics that unions sometimes employ.
Q:
Briefly discuss the Landrum-Griffin Act, including the rights and obligations that the legislation provides.
Q:
Neutrality agreements secure a binding commitment from the _____ to remain neutral during the organization drive.
a. employees
b. local government
c. employer
d. national or international union
Q:
Which act placed the protective power of the federal government firmly behind employee efforts to organize and bargain collectively through representatives of their choice?
a. Norris-LaGuardia
b. Railway Labor
c. Taft-Hartley
d. Wagner
Q:
A provision, where permitted, of a labor agreement that requires employees to join the union as a condition of employment is called:
a. a closed shop.
b. a union shop.
c. an agency shop.
d. union check-off.
Q:
Statistics show that approximately _____ jobs in the United States can be offshored.
a. 14 million
b. 26 million
c. 38 million
d. 50 million
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a major reason for employees desire to unionize?
a. Political issues
b. Economical needs
c. Dissatisfaction with management
d. Social and status concerns
Q:
In 2012, union membership was approximately _____ of employed wage and salary workers.
a. 6.9 percent
b. 11.3 percent
c. 15.4 percent
d. 17.2 percent
Q:
The Bill of Rights for Union Members guarantees union members all of the following rights EXCEPT:
a. the right to sue their unions.
b. the right to have a voice in union affairs.
c. the right for union representation and arbitration for grievances.
d. the right for control of due increases.
Q:
Recently, the Union of Needletraders, Industrial, and Textile Employees (UNITE) merged with _____.
a. the United Auto Workers
b. the Teamsters
c. Hotel Employees and Restaurant Employees
d. the Service Employees International Union
Q:
Which act establishes the Bill of Rights for Union Members and requires unions to submit the financial reports to theSecretary of Labor?
a. The Wagner Act
b. TheRailway Labor Act
c. TheTaft-Hartley Act
d. TheLandrum-Griffin Act
Q:
Which act covering most private-sector employers prohibits certain unfair labor practices, such as a union's refusal to bargain in good faith or a union persuading an employer to discriminate against an employee?
a. TheSherman Act
b. TheRailway Labor Act
c. TheTaft-Hartley Act
d. TheLandrum-Griffin Act
Q:
Which act was passed to balance the rights and duties of labor and management in collective bargaining?
a. TheWagner Act
b. TheRailway Labor Act
c. TheTaft-Hartley Act
d. TheLandrum-Griffin Act
Q:
Which act created the National Labor Relations Board?
a. TheWagner Act
b. TheRailway Labor Act
c. TheTaft-Hartley Act
d. TheLandrum-Griffin Act
Q:
Which act covering most private-sector employers guarantees employees the right to organize and lists five unfair labor practices of employers?
a. TheWagner Act
b. TheRailway Labor Act
c. TheSherman Act
d. TheLandrum-Griffin Act
Q:
Illegal acts by either employers or unions are called:
a. discrimination complaints.
b. violation and resolve charges.
c. unfair labor practices.
d. representation charges.
Q:
Which act is also known as the Anti-Injunction Act?
a. TheNorris-LaGuardia Act
b. TheConflict-Reduction Act
c. TheLandrum-Griffin Act
d. TheCooperative Labor-Management Act
Q:
Which law severely restricts the ability of employers to obtain injunctions in labor relations?
a. TheNorris-LaGuardia Act
b. TheConflict-Reduction Act
c. TheLandrum-Griffin Act
d. TheCooperative Labor-Management Act
Q:
In terms of workplace violence, which of the following should organizations AVOID?
a. Holding managers responsible for preventing acts of violence
b. Analyzing the workplace to uncover areas of potential violence
c. Refraining from hiring persons with arrest records
d. Providing violence prevention training
Q:
Workplace violence warning signs include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. veiled threatening statements.
b. fascination with stories of violence.
c. concentration problems and excessive excuses.
d. chronic fatigue.
Q:
Studies show that _____ of night-shift workers report falling asleep at least once a week while on the job.
a. 10 to 30 percent
b. 30 to 50 percent
c. 50 to 70 percent
d. 70 to 90 percent
Q:
A survey of more than 2,000 employers conducted by the National Safety Council found that _____ percent had some type of cell-phone usage policy in place.
a. 26
b. 37
c. 46
d. 58
Q:
Alternative approaches to employee health include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. pre-employment medical examinations.
b. chiropractic treatments.
c. homeopathic treatments.
d. relaxation techniques and hypnosis.
Q:
The National Institute of Mental Health estimates that nearly ____ percent of the U.S. adult population experience depression each year.
a. 12
b. 7
c. 2
d. 27
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an outcome associated with depression?
a. Lower individual productivity
b. Decreased substance abuse
c. Increased morale problems
d. Increased absenteeism
Q:
____ is the decrease in functional activity accompanied by symptoms of low spirits, gloominess, and sadness.
a. Alcoholism
b. Tengriism
c. Moral dilemma
d. Depression
Q:
Most employers should recognize that alcoholism is a:
a. disease that follows a rather predictable course.
b. personal problem.
c. disease that always follows an unpredictable course.
d. predominantly blue-collar problem.
Q:
If a supervisor suspects that a subordinate has a severe drinking problem, the action to be avoided is:
a. carefully documenting evidence of declining performance.
b. confronting the employee with proof that his or her performance is deficient.
c. confronting the employee with his or her alcoholism during the first meeting and threatening with dismissal if the employee does not seek help.
d. assuring the employee that help is available without any penalty.
Q:
The requirements for federal contractors to take steps to ensure a drug-free workplace is found in:
a. the Occupational Safety and Health Act.
b. the Drug-Free Workplace Act.
c. the Executive Order 11246.
d. the Toxic Substances Control Act.
Q:
Unlike preferred provider organizations (PPOs), where employees may have little choice in the doctor they see, health maintenance organizations (HMOs) allow employees to select their doctor of choice from a list of physicians.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A preferred provider organization (PPO) is a group of physicians who establish an organization that guarantees the quality of health care provided by a health maintenance organization (HMO).
a. True
b. False
Q:
Employee costs for medical services provided by a health maintenance organization (HMO) vary according to the type of service and how often the employee needs it.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Employers pay a fixed annual fee to a health maintenance organization to cover a majority of their employees' medical costs.
a. True
b. False
Q:
To contain health care costs, an employer may increase an employee's deductible amount or co-payments.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Today, the majority of U.S. employees get health coverage through their employers.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Health care plans only cover medical, surgical, and hospital expenses.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Some states provide rights to employees that are lesser than those provided by the Family and Medical Leave Act.
a. True
b. False
Q:
As of 2014, firms that employ 50 or more people who work 30 or morehours per week but do not offer them health insurance will have to pay a penalty tothe government.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Under the Family and Medical Leave Act, an employee returning to work does not necessarily have to be restored to his or her original job or to an equivalent job.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The Family and Medical Leave Act permits substitution of paid leave and vacation during leave.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The purpose of a profit-sharing plan is to:
a. allow workers to contribute specific knowledge to improving the organization.
b. give employees the opportunity to increase their earnings.
c. enable workers to share in labor cost savings.
d. instill commitment to the employee's immediate work group.
Q:
Profit sharing refers to any procedure by which an employer pays employees:
a. an incentive based on their merit.
b. an incentive based on labor cost savings.
c. a bonus based on the overall productivity of their particular work group.
d. current or deferred sums based on the organization's financial performance.
Q:
When the determination of a bonus includes both production employees and nonproduction employees and this bonus is based on overall group productivity, which type of gainsharing program is being used?
a. Profit sharing
b. The Rucker Plan
c. Improshare
d. The Scanlon Plan
Q:
The philosophy behind the Scanlon Plan is that:
a. employees should make suggestions to improve performance and be rewarded for their contributions.
b. organizational profits should improve through sales efforts.
c. managers and employees should establish quality and quantity goals for optimum organizational performance.
d. rewards should be shared with employees based on improved profits.
Q:
_____ is a bonus incentive plan which uses employee and management committees to gain cost-reduction improvements.
a. Piecework
b. The Rucker Plan
c. The Scanlon Plan
d. Improshare
Q:
Common output measures for productivity include:
a. sales.
b. materials.
c. labor costs.
d. total costs.
Q:
Team incentive bonuses may be paid out in all of the following ways EXCEPT by distributing it:
a. equally among team members.
b. proportion to each member's base pay.
c. proportion to each member's relative contribution to the team.
d. on the basis of individual performance appraisal.
Q:
A problem with creating team incentive plans is that:
a. they encourage negativity rather than cooperative behavior.
b. not all teams that are createdare alike.
c. they don'tenable employees to share efficiency gains..
d. they pay only when agreed-upon standards are met or exceeded.
Q:
Group incentive plans do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. enabling employees to share the benefits of improved efficiency.
b. encouraging cooperation.
c. reducing free-ride effect.
d. rewarding employees for total contribution to organizational performance.
Q:
A major concern of executive compensation involves:
a. timing of the bonus.
b. the amount of compensation.
c. lack of perquisites.
d. lack of objective market data.
Q:
Compensation committees justify large executive compensation packages in the following ways EXCEPT:
a. effective executives create shareholder value.
b. good executive talent is in great demand.
c. the pay gap between the CEO and employees builds credibility.
d. large incentives reward superior performance.
Q:
Gainsharing plans are designed to increase employee job satisfaction and improve customer awareness.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Team bonuses may be paid out equally to each team member, in proportion to their base pay, or in proportion to their relative contribution to the team.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Compensation committees justify large executive salaries and bonuses in part because good executive talent is in high demand.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Perquisites are special nonmonetary benefits given to executive employees.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A major criticism of short-term incentives for executives is that they place too much emphasis on short-term performance, which may lead to negligence of long-term survival and growth objectives.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Stock options are rights attached to the achievement of specific organizational objectives.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The principal reason guiding executive stock options as an incentive is for senior managers to have a significant stake in the success of a business.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Annual bonuses represent the main element of executive short-term incentives.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Straight commission plans may induce salespeople to grant price concessions.
a. True
b. False