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Human Resource
Q:
What is the primary reason for the rising importance of HR at firms over the last four decades?
A) Market globalization
B) Workforce diversity
C) Employment laws
D) Technology
Q:
RCA is creating a corporate identity to smooth over cultural differences between its domestic and international employees. RCA is most likely addressing the HRM challenge of:
A) outsourcing.
B) globalization.
C) employee stress.
D) competitive markets.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true of the Internet Revolution as it relates to HRM?
A) Writing skills are essential to effective e-mail communications.
B) The recruiting, screening, and hiring process is streamlined.
C) Online corporate training is surpassing classroom training.
D) Cross-cultural understanding is less important.
Q:
Due to the increasing work pace and burnout in the United States, more workers are dealing with stress. According to your text, an increasing number of firms are choosing to:
A) provide employees with stress-control programs.
B) require employees to take longer breaks during the work day.
C) encourage telecommuting, job sharing, and employment sabbaticals.
D) inform potential employees of this challenge during the interviewing process.
Q:
Which of the following is an environmental challenge faced by modern HR managers?
A) Job insecurity
B) Decentralization
C) Globalization
D) Self-managed work teams
Q:
Salaried employees are also known as ________ employees.
A) exempt
B) senior
C) staff
D) line
Q:
Tony works in the finance department as an accounting clerk. He keeps a time card and receives extra pay for any overtime he works. Tony is most likely a(n):
A) exempt line employee.
B) nonexempt staff employee.
C) exempt staff employee.
D) nonexempt line employee.
Q:
As the director of HR, you are in a meeting with your corporate officers discussing the firm's deliberate use of personnel to gain a competitive edge in the marketplace. You are most likely discussing:
A) human resource policies.
B) corporate objectives.
C) human resource strategies.
D) line employees.
Q:
A multidomestic corporation is essentially a domestic firm that builds on its existing capabilities to penetrate overseas markets.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Discuss the various contemporary challenges faced by labor organizations labor. How are unions attempting to meet these challenges?
Q:
List some typical and some progressiveclauses found in a labor agreement.
Q:
Explain some of the issues that should be addressed by the employer's bargaining strategy.
Q:
Briefly discuss some of the aggressive organizing tactics that unions sometimes employ.
Q:
Briefly discuss the Landrum-Griffin Act, including the rights and obligations that the legislation provides.
Q:
Neutrality agreements secure a binding commitment from the _____ to remain neutral during the organization drive.
a. employees
b. local government
c. employer
d. national or international union
Q:
Which act placed the protective power of the federal government firmly behind employee efforts to organize and bargain collectively through representatives of their choice?
a. Norris-LaGuardia
b. Railway Labor
c. Taft-Hartley
d. Wagner
Q:
Statistics show that approximately _____ jobs in the United States can be offshored.
a. 14 million
b. 26 million
c. 38 million
d. 50 million
Q:
In 2012, union membership was approximately _____ of employed wage and salary workers.
a. 6.9 percent
b. 11.3 percent
c. 15.4 percent
d. 17.2 percent
Q:
Recently, the Union of Needletraders, Industrial, and Textile Employees (UNITE) merged with _____.
a. the United Auto Workers
b. the Teamsters
c. Hotel Employees and Restaurant Employees
d. the Service Employees International Union
Q:
A provision, where permitted, of a labor agreement that requires employees to join the union as a condition of employment is called:
a. a closed shop.
b. a union shop.
c. an agency shop.
d. union check-off.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a major reason for employees desire to unionize?
a. Political issues
b. Economical needs
c. Dissatisfaction with management
d. Social and status concerns
Q:
The Bill of Rights for Union Members guarantees union members all of the following rights EXCEPT:
a. the right to sue their unions.
b. the right to have a voice in union affairs.
c. the right for union representation and arbitration for grievances.
d. the right for control of due increases.
Q:
Which act establishes the Bill of Rights for Union Members and requires unions to submit the financial reports to theSecretary of Labor?
a. The Wagner Act
b. TheRailway Labor Act
c. TheTaft-Hartley Act
d. TheLandrum-Griffin Act
Q:
Which act covering most private-sector employers prohibits certain unfair labor practices, such as a union's refusal to bargain in good faith or a union persuading an employer to discriminate against an employee?
a. TheSherman Act
b. TheRailway Labor Act
c. TheTaft-Hartley Act
d. TheLandrum-Griffin Act
Q:
Which act was passed to balance the rights and duties of labor and management in collective bargaining?
a. TheWagner Act
b. TheRailway Labor Act
c. TheTaft-Hartley Act
d. TheLandrum-Griffin Act
Q:
Which act created the National Labor Relations Board?
a. TheWagner Act
b. TheRailway Labor Act
c. TheTaft-Hartley Act
d. TheLandrum-Griffin Act
Q:
Which act covering most private-sector employers guarantees employees the right to organize and lists five unfair labor practices of employers?
a. TheWagner Act
b. TheRailway Labor Act
c. TheSherman Act
d. TheLandrum-Griffin Act
Q:
Illegal acts by either employers or unions are called:
a. discrimination complaints.
b. violation and resolve charges.
c. unfair labor practices.
d. representation charges.
Q:
Which act is also known as the Anti-Injunction Act?
a. TheNorris-LaGuardia Act
b. TheConflict-Reduction Act
c. TheLandrum-Griffin Act
d. TheCooperative Labor-Management Act
Q:
Which law severely restricts the ability of employers to obtain injunctions in labor relations?
a. TheNorris-LaGuardia Act
b. TheConflict-Reduction Act
c. TheLandrum-Griffin Act
d. TheCooperative Labor-Management Act
Q:
In terms of workplace violence, which of the following should organizations AVOID?
a. Holding managers responsible for preventing acts of violence
b. Analyzing the workplace to uncover areas of potential violence
c. Refraining from hiring persons with arrest records
d. Providing violence prevention training
Q:
Workplace violence warning signs include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. veiled threatening statements.
b. fascination with stories of violence.
c. concentration problems and excessive excuses.
d. chronic fatigue.
Q:
Studies show that _____ of night-shift workers report falling asleep at least once a week while on the job.
a. 10 to 30 percent
b. 30 to 50 percent
c. 50 to 70 percent
d. 70 to 90 percent
Q:
A survey of more than 2,000 employers conducted by the National Safety Council found that _____ percent had some type of cell-phone usage policy in place.
a. 26
b. 37
c. 46
d. 58
Q:
Alternative approaches to employee health include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. pre-employment medical examinations.
b. chiropractic treatments.
c. homeopathic treatments.
d. relaxation techniques and hypnosis.
Q:
The National Institute of Mental Health estimates that nearly ____ percent of the U.S. adult population experience depression each year.
a. 12
b. 7
c. 2
d. 27
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an outcome associated with depression?
a. Lower individual productivity
b. Decreased substance abuse
c. Increased morale problems
d. Increased absenteeism
Q:
____ is the decrease in functional activity accompanied by symptoms of low spirits, gloominess, and sadness.
a. Alcoholism
b. Tengriism
c. Moral dilemma
d. Depression
Q:
Most employers should recognize that alcoholism is a:
a. disease that follows a rather predictable course.
b. personal problem.
c. disease that always follows an unpredictable course.
d. predominantly blue-collar problem.
Q:
If a supervisor suspects that a subordinate has a severe drinking problem, the action to be avoided is:
a. carefully documenting evidence of declining performance.
b. confronting the employee with proof that his or her performance is deficient.
c. confronting the employee with his or her alcoholism during the first meeting and threatening with dismissal if the employee does not seek help.
d. assuring the employee that help is available without any penalty.
Q:
The requirements for federal contractors to take steps to ensure a drug-free workplace is found in:
a. the Occupational Safety and Health Act.
b. the Drug-Free Workplace Act.
c. the Executive Order 11246.
d. the Toxic Substances Control Act.
Q:
A performance rating error in which the rater is reluctant to give employees either extremely high or extremely low ratings is referred to as a(n):
a. recency error.
b. error of central tendency.
c. leniency or strictness error.
d. halo error.
Q:
One advantage of peer evaluations is that:
a. peers are less politically motivated than supervisors.
b. peers may furnish more accurate and valid information than supervisors.
c. peers may work harder to help other employees improve performance.
d. peers are often partially responsible for the performance of other co-workers.
Q:
Self-appraisals are best for:
a. administrative purposes.
b. developmental purposes.
c. promotional purposes.
d. regulatory purposes.
Q:
Performance-relatedbehaviors such as leadership ability, ability to delegate, and employee supportivenessmay best be appraised by:
a. the manager/supervisor.
b. peers.
c. subordinates.
d. the management team.
Q:
In most instances, who is in the best position to perform the function of evaluating an employee's performance?
a. The HR personnel
b. The employee's supervisor
c. The employee
d. Co-workers
Q:
In light of recent court rulings, HR managers suggest that performance evaluations should meet all of the following legal guidelines EXCEPT:
a. performance ratings must be job-related.
b. employees must beprovided with clear, written job standards in advance of theirevaluations.
c. performance evaluation should rarely be tied to compensation decisions.
d. supervisors should be trained to use the evaluation form correctly.
Q:
The Supreme Court ruling states that:
a. vague performance standards can be acceptable when clearly written.
b. organizations should have carefully defined and measurable performance standards.
c. while performance standards should be somewhat specific, there should be room for individual interpretation.
d. descriptions of traits such as attitude and cooperation are acceptable performance standards.
Q:
Reliability in performance appraisal is measured by:
a. correlating two sets of ratings made byasingle rater or by two different raters.
b. correlating the ratings of an employee at two different points in time.
c. linking performance standards to organizational goals.
d. quantifiable performance standards.
Q:
If a performance standard is found to be stable or consistent over time, it is said to be:
a. free from contamination.
b. relevant.
c. reliable.
d. valid.
Q:
If the performance evaluations that salespeople receive are based solely on sales revenue to the exclusion of other important factors, the performance management system suffers from:
a. criterion contamination.
b. lack of reliability.
c. criterion deficiency.
d. organizational politics.
Q:
Freedom from criterion deficiency of performance appraisals refers to the extent to which:
a. standards relate to the overall objectives of the organization.
b. standards capture the entire range of an employee's responsibilities.
c. individuals tend to maintain a certain level of performance over time.
d. factors outside the employee's control can influence performance.
Q:
Most people hear or read about collective bargaining only when a contract is about to expire or when negotiations break down.
Q:
The four issues that appear consistently throughout all labor contracts include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) wages
B) location
C) terms and conditions of employment
D) hours
E) grievance procedure
Q:
A process for negotiating a union contract and for administrating the contract after it has been negotiated is ________.
A) collective bargaining
B) grievance procedure
C) mediation
D) arbitration
E) conciliation
Q:
Identify the efforts that are commonly made by a union to organize a group of employees, and explain how collective bargaining proceeds with labor and management.
Q:
One hundred percent of workers must sign authorization cards before efforts to organize a union may begin.
Q:
Although organizing drives may be unsuccessful, when unions achieve their goal to become the exclusive bargaining agent, the next step is to ________.
A) hold a certification election
B) enter mediation
C) negotiate the contract
D) vote to accept the contract
E) administer the contract
Q:
On some occasions, union members may become so dissatisfied with the union's actions in representing them that they want to turn to another union or return to their nonunion status. In either case, the rank-and-file members petition the NLRB to conduct a(n) ________.
A) mediation
B) representation decertification election
C) certification election
D) conciliation
E) arbitration
Q:
When a majority vote is received in a representation certification election, the NLRB certifies the union and recognizes it as the exclusive ________.
A) union
B) union steward
C) resolution agent
D) negotiating organization
E) bargaining unit
Q:
Discuss the importance of the Wagner Act and the Taft-Hartley Act.
Q:
The Racketeering Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO) of 1970 serves a vital purpose in labor relations and its primary emphasis with respect to labor unions is to eliminate any influence exerted on unions by members of Congress.
Q:
Also known as the Labor and Management Reporting and Disclosure Act, the ________ Act protects union members from possible wrongdoing on the part of their unions. Its thrust is to require all unions to disclose their financial statements.
A) Railway Labor
B) Taft-Hartley
C) Norris-LaGuardia
D) Landrum-Griffin
E) Labor-Management Relations
Q:
Norms dictate these things on the job EXCEPT ________.
A) amount of socializing allowed on the job
B) promptness or tardiness
C) absenteeism rates
D) output levels
E) honesty
Q:
Work groups typically provide their members with explicit cues on ________.
A) union membership
B) when to request vacation
C) who is the group liaison
D) how hard to work
E) the supervisor's anniversary
Q:
Probably the most widespread norms in many organizations are related to levels of ________.
A) budget and control
B) hierarchy
C) employee wages
D) effort and performance
E) strategic planning
Q:
What is a group and how does a formal group differ from an informal group?
Q:
Formal work groups are the same as teams.
Q:
Formal groups are work groups established outside the organization.
Q:
A group is defined as two or more interacting and interdependent individuals who come together to achieve particular objectives.
Q:
For individuals with a high power need, groups can be a vehicle for ________.
A) commitment
B) communication
C) promotion
D) fulfillment
E) direct access
Q:
One of the appealing aspects of groups is that they represent ________, because what often cannot be achieved individually becomes possible through group action.
A) power
B) unity
C) togetherness
D) organization
E) representation
Q:
For many individuals their primary means of fulfilling their need for affiliation is ________.
A) off-the-job interactions
B) vacations
C) breaks
D) on-the-job interactions
E) lunch breaks
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a reason why employees join groups?
A) security
B) self-esteem
C) affiliation
D) money
E) power
Q:
Strategic planning would be implemented when developing expense budgets and employee work schedules.
Q:
All supervisors, irrespective of their level in the organization, should plan. But the type of planning they do tends to vary with their level in the organization, and the planning they do will differ in several ways.
Q:
Strategic planning tends to be developed by first-level management.
Q:
Formal planning means specific goals are formulated and never reduced to writing but simply communicated.
Q:
A ________ is a numerical plan that expresses anticipated results in dollar terms for a specific time period and may be used as a planning guide as well as a control device.
A) budget
B) ordinal plan
C) nominal plan
D) revenue forecast
E) financial plan
Q:
Supervisors frequently have to create programs for their departments that are nonrecurring undertakings requiring a set of integrated plans to ________.
A) achieve fair standards
B) achieve budgetary control
C) accomplish their objectives
D) perform repetitive tasks
E) perform routine decision making