Q&A Hero

Q: You are negotiating a sales contract for your company. During the negotiation, your opponent asks for a very large concession or favor from you which you are most likely to refuse. When you refuse the request, the negotiator makes a much smaller request, which is the option he or she wanted all along. Which of the following techniques of negotiation is being used by your opponent? A) sweetening the deal technique B) foot-in-the-door C) door-in-the-face technique D) reactance

Q: Which of the following strategies plays upon people's need to demonstrate consistent behavior? A) the door-in-the-face technique B) the foot-in-the-door technique C) the rejection-then-retreat technique D) the sweetening the deal technique

Q: The reactance technique is also known as the ________ effect. A) boomerang B) endowment C) bandwagon D) pseudocertainty

Q: The ________ technique involves making a request after a target person has been shown records of similar others who have already complied. A) reactance B) framing C) list D) anchoring

Q: According to the social proof principle, ________. A) we tend to search for or interpret information in a way that confirms our preconceptions B) we have a tendency to reject new evidence that contradicts an established paradigm C) we tend to overestimate the likelihood of negative things happening to us D) we look to the behavior of others to determine what is desirable, appropriate, and correct

Q: ________ refers to the impact subtle cues and information in the environment have on our behavior. A) Social capital B) Unconscious priming C) Pseudostatus effect D) Self-fulfilling prophesy

Q: People with high network power who fill a unique spot within the organizational network by bringing together people, knowledge, and information that would not otherwise be brought together, are called ________. A) capitalists B) innovators C) boundary spanners D) laggards

Q: ________ is the power that results from managers' access to other people within and outside of their organization. A) Social capital B) Reward power C) Intellectual capital D) Coercive power

Q: Which of the following statements is true about pseudostatus characteristics? A) During a negotiation, women have more influence than men. B) Pseudostatus characteristics are legitimate markers of status. C) Although pseudostatus characteristics are not legitimate markers of status, people treat them as though they are. D) Pseudostatus characteristics rarely exert any effect on the negotiation.

Q: The three most common secondary status characteristics are ________. A) age, cultural background, and financial status B) gender, age, and race C) gender, rank within the organization, and age D) race, financial status, and rank within the organization

Q: Which of the following is a secondary status characteristic? A) a person's rank within an organization B) the number of supervisors in that person's unit C) a person's ethnicity D) a person's various titles and degrees

Q: Secondary status characteristics are also called ________ characteristics. A) pseudostatus B) implied C) perceived D) apparent

Q: A person's ________ is a primary status characteristic. A) age B) ethnicity C) rank within an organization D) cultural background

Q: You are about to begin a negotiation and you wish to avoid being a victim of the framing effect. In order to achieve this objective, you should ________. A) try to maximize the bargaining zone using integrative bargaining strategies B) determine your reference point prior to entering into the negotiation C) develop crisis procedures for emergency communication D) coax the counterparty to reveal his or her BATNA

Q: You are interested in buying a second-hand car. When the agent asks if you are ready to buy a car, you say yes immediately because it does not obligate you to buy a particular car. However, powerful psychological commitment processes begin to operate once you acknowledge yourself to be a "buyer." Which of the following concepts validates this response? A) the framing effect B) the consistency principle C) the anchoring bias D) the psychological contrast effect

Q: Acceptance rates of the second offer are higher when it follows the initial extreme offer. This conclusion is based on which of the following assumptions? A) The other party will use the interests-based approach for negotiation. B) The other party will make unilateral concessions. C) The other party will use the central route to persuasion. D) The other party has not yet set a well-defined target point.

Q: When a negotiator makes an extreme initial offer and then follows with an offer that appears more reasonable, he or she is attempting to create a ________ effect. A) bandwagon B) subadditivity C) psychological contrast D) primacy

Q: Briefly describe the pitfalls of embedded relationships.

Q: Distinguish between knowledge-based trust and identification-based trust.

Q: Azurus Fabrics, a textile manufacturing factory, has hit a rough patch with its employees. The employees don't seem to be satisfied with the way the management has been handling certain issues. According to the workers, there has been no increase in the workers' compensation despite the fact that there were five employee deaths in the previous year. They also claim that, a year ago, the chief production officer had promised to increase their compensation by now, but has done nothing so far. The labor union threatens to go on a strike if the issue is not resolved soon. Assume that the management and the laborers intend to iron out their differences. Which of the following, if true, can help mend the relations and restore the lost trust? A) The labor union leader sends a letter to the management to urge them to make a decision in favor of the employees. B) The management and the labor union leader decide to meet and talk things through and plan how to avoid problems in future. C) The management decides to compensate and promote the labor union leader so that he can discourage the employees from going on strike. D) The management and the labor union chief decide to meet intermittently, i.e., whenever they can, to have a one-on-one to follow up on the issue.

Q: Azurus Fabrics, a textile manufacturing factory, has hit a rough patch with its employees. The employees don't seem to be satisfied with the way the management has been handling certain issues. According to the workers, there has been no increase in the workers' compensation despite the fact that there were five employee deaths in the previous year. They also claim that, a year ago, the chief production officer had promised to increase their compensation by now, but has done nothing so far. The labor union threatens to go on a strike if the issue is not resolved soon. Which of the following, if true, could have led to the skepticism between the management and the laborers? A) Management decides to change the necessary equipment to provide workers with better working conditions. B) Management cites credible reasons for their decision to support the chief production officer's decisions. C) Management seeks clarification from the laborers for the sudden deaths of the laborers on duty. D) The labor union leader's assistant over the past year has earned a reputation of being untrustworthy.

Q: Which of the following refers to sticky ties? A) relations that are guided by people's need for acceptance as well as achievement B) relations that are driven by people's need for independence and identity C) relations that form due to ingrained habits of prolonged interaction D) relations that are guided by a need for achievement

Q: Which of the following refers to a method by which things are reduced to a single value so that easy comparison can be made between diverse qualitative and quantitative factors? A) mirroring B) market pricing C) the reciprocal principle D) dispositional attribution

Q: Which of the following can promote compromise agreements? A) merit-based rule B) equality norm C) escrow norm D) equity rule

Q: Merit-based rule is also known as the ________ rule. A) equality B) equivalence C) equity D) escrow

Q: Which of the following is characteristic of the O. Henry effect? A) reaching monetarily inefficient outcomes and low relational satisfaction B) reaching monetarily inefficient outcomes but achieving high relational satisfaction C) reaching monetarily efficient outcomes but low relational satisfaction D) reaching monetarily efficient outcomes with high relational satisfaction

Q: ________ state that people should keep track of who has invested in a relationship and be compensated based on their inputs. A) Communal norms B) Uniform norms C) Exchange norms D) Operator norms

Q: Most friendships are built on ________. A) operator norms B) exchange norms C) uniform norms D) communal norms

Q: Which of the following is a process negotiators use when they find it difficult to steer the interaction? A) dispositional attribution B) the halo effect C) emotional punctuation D) the propinquity effect

Q: Which of the following describes the forked-tail effect? A) People make a judgement based on what they can remember rather than complete data. B) People overestimate the causal role of information available to them. C) People generalize a negative perception of a person to his or her other aspects. D) People remember the first few things in a list more than the things in the middle.

Q: Which of the following best describes the halo effect? A) When people consider a person good in one category, they are likely to make a similar evaluation in other categories. B) Given a list of items to remember, people tend to remember the first few things more than those things in the middle. C) It is the phenomenon by which individual performance decreases as the number of people in the group increases. D) When people make decisions, they tend to do so by contrasting between the decision item and reference items.

Q: A negotiator has a history of successful negotiations under his belt. Although he has clearly has not been up to scratch in the recent past, he is still considered the best negotiator in his company. What effect can it be attributed to? A) the propinquity effect B) the halo effect C) the projection effect D) the mere exposure effect

Q: When people assume that the cause of a particular behavior is something external to the individual, this is known as ________. A) dispositional attribution B) situational attribution C) ultimate attribution error D) fundamental attribution

Q: During a meeting, a negotiator who is normally cordial behaves rudely, instantly making his counterpart assume that he is a bad person. Which of the following best describes the situation? A) the spotlight effect B) predictive attribution C) dispositional attribution D) the propinquity effect

Q: In a negotiation, one party is irritable and obstructive. His counterparty would be using situational attribution if he attributed the first person's irritability to ________. A) impatient tendencies B) physical discomfort C) characteristic arrogance D) argumentativeness

Q: In a negotiation, one party is irritable and obstructive. His counterparty would be using dispositional attribution if he attributed the first person's irritability to ________. A) the duration of the negotiation B) the weather conditions C) the stress of the negotiation D) the person's character

Q: Negotiators are advised to adopt ________ as a method of building trust with the counterparty. A) ridicule B) mimicry C) derision D) defiance

Q: Ahead of the negotiation process, one of the negotiating parties invites the other to dinner. The offer is difficult to decline as the reservations have already been made. Though this may not do much by way of influencing the negotiation outcome, the other party too decides to return the favor. Which of the following best explains the reasons for the other party's behavior? A) the mere exposure effect B) the reciprocity principle C) the similarity effect D) the propinquity effect

Q: Certain aspects of architectural design make it more likely that some people will come into contact with each other more often than with others, even though the physical distance between them might be the same. This is known as ________. A) mirroring B) dispositional attribution C) the reciprocity principle D) functional distance

Q: Which of the following is explained by the propinquity effect? A) Catherine only learned to appreciate wine when she began reporting society news for the paper. B) Greg went out of his way to help David because David had once loaned him money. C) From all his employees, Nick picked Gil to be his assistant as they have very similar personalities. D) Sara and Warrick became friends when they moved in next door to each other.

Q: Lauren and Max are engaged to be married. Both their families want to be part of the wedding, but they don't get along at all. Lauren would rather organize the ceremony on her own than constantly mediate family quarrels, but Max insists that if she invites both families to a few dinners together, they will begin to get along better. Which of the following validates Max's claim? A) reciprocity principle B) the mere exposure effect C) the similarity-attraction effect D) the ambiguity effect

Q: Which of the following best describes the mere exposure effect? A) the phenomenon by which individual performance decreases as the number of people in the group increases B) the phenomenon by which conflicts subside when people have time apart C) the phenomenon by which hostility between parties is defused through frequent meetings D) the phenomenon that makes people seek scapegoats even when they are themselves are at fault

Q: Two companies in the research field are considering a partnership. The representatives of the two parties set the negotiation ball rolling. Under which of the following circumstances will the negotiators experience cognition-based trust? A) They agree about economic issues. B) They know each other socially. C) They have the same personality type. D) They are loyal to their companies.

Q: Which of the following can lead to contentions in a task conflict? A) The two negotiators have different ideas about a project. B) The negotiators have different personality types. C) One of the negotiators tends to monopolize the discussion. D) One of the negotiators has an abrasive style of speaking.

Q: ________ conflict is rooted in personality and ego. A) Intuitive B) Structural C) Cognitive D) Emotional

Q: What is the cognitive route to building trust based on? A) belief B) intuition C) emotion D) rationality

Q: The two routes to building trust are the ________ routes. A) applicative and collaborative B) preventive and regulative C) cognitive and affective D) normative and evaluative

Q: Two people empathize with each other and begin to adopt each other's values. Which of the following terms most suitably denotes the kind of trust shared between the two of them? A) deterrence-based trust B) identification-based trust C) emotional contagion D) knowledge-based trust

Q: A restaurant setting up shop in a new city wants to obtain fresh produce directly from the farms around the city. Though buying directly from the farms is often more expensive than buying from their suppliers, the restaurant's negotiators are confident of securing a mutually acceptable price list. Which of the following situations will most likely promote the development of integrative agreements? A) The restaurant wants to ensure that it gets a variety of produce. B) Established restaurants also obtain supplies from the farmers. C) The farmers expect that it will be a long-term relationship. D) The restaurant wants to balance the price and quality of produce.

Q: When does a knowledge-based trust emerge? A) when a person is successful in modifying another's beliefs B) when a person has complete authority over the other person C) when a person internalizes the other person's values and beliefs D) when a person understands the motivations of the other person

Q: Reactance theory explains ________. A) why people are likely to conform when the group is homogeneous B) why people are more likely to obey authority figures than peers C) why compliance is more common than acceptance of rules D) why people tend to be resistant to rules that curb their freedom

Q: What is the drawback of deterrence-based trust systems? A) They do not promote cohesion. B) Both parties run the risk of exploitation. C) They are expensive to maintain. D) They cannot provide long-term results.

Q: A national chain of sandwich stores encourages the development of uniformity among customer-facing employees in all its outlets to increase familiarity and trust with the brand. To attain consistency in behavior, managers of the various outlets keep a record of employees who make errors and those who adhere to protocol. Successful employees are rewarded, while negligent employees are reprimanded. The managers in this case are using ________. A) knowledge-based trust B) deterrent-based trust C) identification-based trust D) isolation-based trust

Q: What are the three types of trust relationships people develop with each other? A) deterrence-based trust, knowledge-based trust, and identification-based trust B) incentive-based trust, application-based trust, and imperative-based trust C) encouragement-based trust, isolation-based trust, and responsiveness-based trust D) ubiquity-based trust, aspiration-based trust, and opinion-based trust

Q: Which of the following is an area assessed by the Subjective Value Inventory when applied to negotiators? A) determination of a strategy B) trust between negotiators C) cost analysis of options D) causes of the dispute

Q: Particularism describes the utility of a resource depending on ________. A) how tangible it is B) who the recipient is C) how often it is provided D) who is providing it

Q: Which of the following is true for the economic models of negotiation? A) The maximization of wealth and profit is the sole consideration of these models. B) Personal relationships between the parties are not a factor in decisions. C) They focus on maximizing utility, which includes considerations such as security or peace of mind. D) These models consider values or properties that are tangible and measurable.

Q: Capitalism is the ultimate expression of market pricing.

Q: When it comes to pie-slicing, the kind of relationship shared by negotiators becomes immaterial.

Q: Expressing disappointment can be detrimental if a negotiator intends to repair broken trust.

Q: Negotiators who mimic the mannerisms of the counterparty build trust.

Q: Purposeless small talk can lead negotiators to build trust and should be encouraged.

Q: The problem with reciprocity arises when different parties place different value on aspects of a relationship.

Q: Knowledge-based trust increases dependence and commitment among parties.

Q: Identification-based trust occurs when a person has enough information about others to understand them and accurately predict their behavior.

Q: Whenever informational uncertainty characterizes a relationship, it provides opportunity for greater trust.

Q: Surveillance helps reinforce the behaviors that monitoring intends to ensure.

Q: Discuss the effect of emotional intelligence on negotiated outcomes.

Q: According to Ury, Brett, and Goldberg, what are the three types of approaches that are used for conflict or dispute resolution?

Q: ________ refers to a negotiator's belief in her or his ability to create resources. A) Circular logrolling B) Self-serving bias C) Emotional contagion D) Integrative self-efficacy

Q: ________ refers to a negotiator's belief in his or her ability to claim resources effectively. A) Primacy effect B) Distributive self-efficacy C) Self-serving bias D) False consensus effect

Q: Negotiators who are in a positive mood ________ than do negative or neutral-mood negotiators. A) use fewer cooperative strategies B) engage in less information exchange C) generate fewer alternatives D) use fewer contentious tactics

Q: ________ is an active and unpleasant emotion. A) Sadness B) Stress C) Depression D) Boredom

Q: Which of the following statements is true about emotions? A) Moods are less chronic when compared to emotions. B) Emotions are usually not directed at a certain event or at someone. C) The classification of moods is more specific than that of emotions. D) Emotions are usually fairly intense.

Q: ________ is a hybrid model traced to South Africa in which an arbitrator makes a decision and places it in a sealed envelope. The threat of the arbitrator's decision sits on a table and is destined to be opened unless the parties reach mutual agreement. A) Arb-med B) Final offer arbitration C) Med-arb D) Minitrial

Q: In which of the following methods does the arbitrator lack the authority to compromise between parties' positions, and must accept one of the final offers made? A) arb-med B) final offer arbitration C) minitrial D) med-arb

Q: In which of the following procedures do high-level executives in the organization, who have not been involved in the dispute previously, act as lawyers, represent each side and present evidence and arguments that are heard by a neutral judge or advisor? A) a minitrial B) a med-arb C) a final offer arbitration D) an arb-med

Q: ________ is a hybrid model in which, if mediation fails, the mediator serves as an arbitrator. A) Final-offer arbitration B) Arb-med C) Minitrial D) Med-arb

Q: Advisory arbitration is a method whereby managers are provided with information that ________. A) helps them in identifying the reservation points of both the parties B) allows them to identify the appropriate bargaining zone for the negotiation C) would likely result if the dispute were to go to court D) helps them in suggesting the appropriate approach for resolving the dispute

Q: In a multistep negotiation procedure, ________. A) negotiations are carried out using the rights-based approach B) the focus of negotiation is expanding the pie C) an unresolved dispute moves to a higher level in the organizational hierarchy D) the negotiators use various distributive bargaining strategies for dividing the resources