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Q:
Mediators who are manipulators occasionally reveal information they have gathered independently and thereby clarify misconceptions.
Q:
A mediator has process control, but no outcome control.
Q:
Arbitration may or may not produce a settlement.
Q:
Mediated settled agreements are enforceable as contracts in courts of law.
Q:
The Mind and Heart of the Negotiator, 5e (Thompson)
Appendix 3: Third-Party Intervention
Q:
Differentiate between monitoring-dependent lies and monitoring-independent lies.
Q:
What are the various components of nonverbal communication?
Q:
If someone wants to lie about a closing date, it would be important to determine what kind of closing date is preferred by the target (one cannot assume early or late). This is an example of a ________.
A) jocose lie
B) lie of omission
C) monitoring-dependent lie
D) lie of commission
Q:
Most negotiators regard themselves as truthful and honest and their opponents as dishonest. This indicates a(n) ________ bias.
A) anchoring
B) egocentric
C) framing
D) distinction
Q:
In a negotiation, the negotiators of OneTime accused those of Bluegray of exaggerating the facts to make their case more favorable. OneTime's negotiators asserted that a negotiation was impossible if both parties were not honest. Bluegray challenged OneTime's negotiators saying that they had withheld information that might have changed their opinion. Which of the following is evident in this situation?
A) confirmation bias
B) cognitive bias
C) egocentric bias
D) selection bias
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding illustrators?
A) Usually, when people lie, their use of illustrators increases.
B) Illustrators symbolize certain messages, such as the North American thumbs-up for "okay."
C) Use of illustrators decreases when people are more involved with what is being said.
D) Illustrators are used to help explain ideas that are difficult to put into words.
Q:
________ are nonverbal cues people show on their face for about one-tenth of a second. These cues reveal how a person is truly feeling, but because of social pressure and self-presentation they are quickly wiped away.
A) Emblems
B) Illustrators
C) Microexpressions
D) Adaptors
Q:
Which of the following paraverbal cues is negatively correlated with deception?
A) message duration
B) speech errors
C) pitch
D) response latency
Q:
Which of the following paraverbal cues has the least positive correlation with deception?
A) pitch
B) response latency
C) speech errors
D) message duration
Q:
Which of the following indicators is reliably associated with deception?
A) speech rate
B) pitch
C) repetitions
D) number of words
Q:
Which of the following is least likely to indicate a liar?
A) response latency
B) higher pitch
C) frequent blinking
D) gaze
Q:
In which of the following modes of communication is it easiest to detect deception?
A) voice mail
B) face-to-face communication
C) e-mail
D) telephonic conversation
Q:
Compared to truth-tellers, liars ________.
A) use less cognitive complexity
B) use more self-references
C) use fewer negative-emotion words
D) use more other-references
Q:
During a negotiation meeting, you notice an inconsistency in the information provided by the opponent. In such a situation, which of the following methods is most likely to be effective in detecting deception?
A) look for microexpressions
B) enrich the mode of communication
C) ask for evidence
D) look for change in the tone of voice
Q:
Which of the following types of lies is more likely to be detected by the triangulation method?
A) lies of commission
B) monitoring-dependent lies
C) jocose lies
D) lies of omission
Q:
Which of the following is a direct method of detecting deception?
A) brainwriting
B) Markov analysis
C) mind mapping
D) triangulation
Q:
The process of asking several questions, all designed as cross-checks on one another, is known as ________.
A) Markov analysis
B) triangulation
C) brainstorming
D) moonlighting
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding deception?
A) Gaze aversion is a foolproof nonverbal indicator of deception.
B) It is more difficult for liars to carry off exaggerations than complete falsification of information.
C) People believe that liars cannot control all of their nonverbal cues.
D) It is easier for negotiators to detect exaggerations rather than complete falsifications.
Q:
As compared to expressive people, unexpressive people ________.
A) make better first impressions
B) are less liked over time
C) are considered to be more attractive
D) are better at feigning feelings they are not actually experiencing
Q:
________ is the ease with which people's feelings can be read from their nonverbal expressive behaviors when they are not trying to deliberately communicate their feelings to others.
A) Emotional labor
B) Spontaneous sending
C) Emotional contagion
D) Self-concordance
Q:
________ is a social skill having to do with verbal and nonverbal expressiveness.
A) Emotional contagion
B) Self-concordance
C) Charisma
D) Emotional labor
Q:
Nonverbal sensitivity can help detect deception. Which of the following statements, if true, will weaken this argument?
A) Nonverbal sensitivity, as a skill, is not correlated with intelligence.
B) Nonverbal expressiveness is linked with social power.
C) Liars can easily manipulate all of their nonverbal cues.
D) People often assert dominance and power through nonverbal cues.
Q:
While speaking and listening, more powerful people ________.
A) avoid eye contact with others
B) look more when listening than when speaking
C) do not listen to the other person
D) make more expansive gestures
Q:
During a negotiation meeting, you feel that one of the persons from the other party, Jack, is very dominating. Which of the following characteristics does Jack most likely exhibit?
A) Jack uses minimal hand gestures while speaking.
B) Jack tends to speak very loudly and quickly.
C) Jack tends to avoid eye contact with the speaker.
D) Jack usually waits for the other person to speak first.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding nonverbal communication skills of men and women?
A) As compared to men, women are more skilled in terms of nonverbal expression, but are not better at detecting deception.
B) As compared to women, men are better at detecting feelings but are not necessarily better at detecting deception.
C) In terms of nonverbal reception, women are better than men at recognizing covert messages, such as discrepant or deceptive communication.
D) As compared to men, women are less skilled in terms of nonverbal expression.
Q:
As compared to men, women ________.
A) are less skilled in terms of nonverbal expression
B) are less approachable in social situations
C) elicit less anxiety from others
D) are less expressive when communicating
Q:
Which of the following nonverbal behaviors exhibited by an individual indicates that you can trust him or her?
A) direct speech
B) overly serious tone
C) fidgeting
D) lack of eye contact
Q:
James and Patrick are negotiating a contract. During the negotiation, James begins to feel that he cannot trust Patrick. Which of the following nonverbal behaviors, if displayed by Patrick, will strengthen James's belief?
A) direct speech
B) lack of eye contact
C) open gestures and behavior
D) forward leaning body posture
Q:
Gestures, such as the widening of hands and arms when talking about something that is large, are called ________.
A) illustrators
B) adaptors
C) emblems
D) predictors
Q:
You are discussing a new project proposal with one of your colleagues. After you finish explaining the proposal to him, he indicates that he likes the proposal with the help of a thumbs-up gesture. This gesture is called a(n) ________.
A) predictor
B) adaptor
C) illustrator
D) emblem
Q:
Gestures, such as touching one's nose or twitching in such a way that does not embellish or illustrate a particular point, are called ________.
A) emblems
B) adaptors
C) predictors
D) embossers
Q:
Gestures that embellish a verbal message are called ________.
A) adaptors
B) predictors
C) illustrators
D) emblems
Q:
Which of the following constitutes an emblem when considering nonverbal communication?
A) When people are lying, they speak more slowly.
B) People use a finger on the lips to indicate silence.
C) People embellish their words with accompanying gestures.
D) People make less eye contact when they are tense.
Q:
Gestures which symbolize certain messages are called ________.
A) emblems
B) illustrators
C) adaptors
D) predictors
Q:
You are about to interview a candidate for the post of sales executive. You have decided that while talking to the candidate you will pay attention to the vocal cues. So during the interview, you would be observing the candidate's ________.
A) gestures
B) facial expressions
C) posture
D) tone and pace of speech
Q:
You are interviewing a candidate for the post of customer service executive. During the interview you observe how the candidate speaks, particularly his pauses, intonation, and fluency. You are evaluating the candidate on the parameter of ________.
A) posture
B) paralinguistic cues
C) gesture
D) facial expression
Q:
Which of the following terms refers to the distance between people when they talk or communicate?
A) gestural emblems
B) interpersonal spacing
C) posture
D) paralinguistic cue
Q:
Which of the following terms refers to how people hold and orient their body?
A) gesture
B) interpersonal spacing
C) paralinguistic cue
D) posture
Q:
Which of the following is a vocal cue?
A) frowning
B) prolonged eye contact
C) gestures
D) pace of speech
Q:
Which of the following is a paralinguistic cue?
A) smiling
B) prolonged gazing
C) intonation
D) interpersonal spacing
Q:
People are more likely to lie face-to-face than when communicating by telephone or e-mail.
Q:
Compared to truth-tellers, liars use fewer negative-emotion words.
Q:
Nonverbal sensitivity is correlated with intelligence.
Q:
Expressive people are considered to be more attractive than unexpressive people.
Q:
In terms of nonverbal reception, women are better than men at recognizing covert messages, such as discrepant or deceptive communication.
Q:
As compared to men, women are less skilled in terms of nonverbal expression.
Q:
Adaptors include things like touching one's nose or twitching in such a way that does not embellish or illustrate a particular point.
Q:
In some cultures, prolonged eye contact is a sign of dominance or aggression.
Q:
When people are experiencing greater arousal, or nervousness, they tend to make fewer movements.
Q:
Nonverbal communication is anything that is "not words."
Q:
The Mind and Heart of the Negotiator, 5e (Thompson)
Appendix 2: Nonverbal Communication and Lie Detection
Q:
Can you think of two situations where you, or someone known to you, made a decision that was consistent with the certainty effect?
Q:
Briefly explain the three main types of decisions to be made by a decision maker.
Q:
Which of the following, according to Nash's theorem, is a property of the unique solution obtained?
A) Unique point maximizes the geometric average of the gains available to people as measured against their reservation points.
B) The agreement point, u, of a negotiation will not satisfy the independence of irrelevant alternatives axiom.
C) The bargaining process might yield outcomes that both people find less desirable than some other feasible outcome.
D) The Pareto-optimality and symmetry axioms are not used to define the agreement points of a symmetrical game.
Q:
Which of the following axioms states that the best outcome in a feasible set of outcomes will also be the best outcome in any smaller subset of feasible outcomes that still contains that outcome?
A) the reducibility axiom
B) the betweenness axiom
C) the independence of irrelevant alternatives axiom
D) the substitutability axiom
Q:
Alturo Corporation provides IT products and services in five European countries. Its services include IT infrastructure, maintenance services, and technology-based support services. In an attempt to explore the Asian market, Alturo considers a joint venture with CST Corporation, a Chinese company that provides services and products for computer hardware products. The company initiates negotiations with the executives of CST Corporation. Which of the following pieces of information, if true, would construct a symmetric bargaining situation under this circumstance?
A) Alturo Corporation is financially stronger than CST Corporation and is considering an acquisition also.
B) Alturo Corporation has been experiencing a dip in their sales at home and the alliance is very crucial for them to better their performance.
C) CST Corporation is expected to benefit more from the joint venture than Alturo Corporation.
D) CST and Alturo are large corporations in terms of financial strength and both companies are expected to benefit evenly from the joint venture.
Q:
Two companies are involved in a discussion regarding the formation of a joint venture company. Both the companies are equally strong financially and stand to gain equally if the negotiation succeeds. This situation is an example of ________.
A) parallel negotiation
B) neutral bargaining
C) symmetric bargaining
D) vertical negotiation
Q:
Which of the following refers to the set of outcomes corresponding to the entire set of agreements that leaves no portion of the total amount of resources unallocated?
A) Pareto-efficient frontier
B) the Nash solution
C) the uniqueness axiom
D) the symmetric bargaining principle
Q:
The ________ states that a distinctive solution exists for each bargaining situation.
A) substitutability axiom
B) symmetric bargaining principle
C) uniqueness axiom
D) Pareto-efficient frontier
Q:
Nash's bargaining theory specifies ________.
A) how to deal with irrational people during a negotiation
B) how negotiators should divide the pie
C) how negotiators can ensure personal growth
D) the measures of perfecting a rational model
Q:
Which of the following is a situation where the negotiator agrees on an outcome though there is another outcome that is Pareto-superior?
A) A negotiator selects his preferred outcome though it decreases the utility for the other party.
B) The negotiator abstains from engaging in discussion with the other parties involved.
C) A negotiator wins over a compromise to obtain a win-win to all the parties involved.
D) The negotiator makes an ineffective bargain resulting in losses to all the parties involved.
Q:
Which of the following is a valid characteristic of the value function?
A) The shape of the value function does not change at the reference point.
B) The value function is noticeably steeper for losses than for gains.
C) At some focal amount of the pertinent outcome, negotiators consider larger amounts as losses and smaller amounts as gains.
D) The shape of the value function remains constant for an individual.
Q:
Which of the following statements depicts the regressiveness principle?
A) Adding two probabilities, p1 and p2, should yield a probability p3 = p1 + p2.
B) The utility function of an individual should be either convex or concave.
C) Extreme values of a quantity do not deviate very much from the average value of that quantity.
D) Except for guaranteed or impossible events, weights for complementary events do not sum to 1.
Q:
Which of the following terms refers to the point at which objective probabilities and subjective weights coincide?
A) utility point
B) crossover point
C) reference point
D) reservation point
Q:
People tend to overweight low probabilities and underweight high probabilities. This is referred to as the ________ effect.
A) extremity
B) possibility
C) utility
D) certainty
Q:
Which of the following refers to the possibility effect?
A) the tendency to overweight low probabilities and underweight high probabilities
B) the tendency to overweight outcomes that are possible relative to outcomes that are impossible
C) the tendency to overweight certain outcomes relative to outcomes that are merely probable
D) the tendency to remain neutral toward outcomes with low probabilities and high probabilities
Q:
According to the ________ effect, people have a tendency to overweight certain outcomes relative to outcomes that are merely probable.
A) possibility
B) probability
C) extremity
D) certainty
Q:
A manager's utility function is identified to be a concave curve. Which of the following investment opportunities is likely to be chosen by him?
A) investment in a real estate company that promises attractive returns
B) venture capital to a small business, administered by a group of young entrepreneurs
C) a bond issued by the federal government that offers guaranteed interest of 2 percent
D) investing in a large corporation that is planning to extend its business overseas
Q:
If a utility function is concave, a decision maker will ________.
A) always choose a risky gamble
B) always choose a sure thing
C) always make a decision in uncertainty or ignorance
D) choose a prospect whose expected value is identical to a sure thing
Q:
Which of the following statements describes the principle of diminishing marginal utility?
A) Constant additions to monetary amounts result in less and less increased utility.
B) Trivial or marginal prizes offered in a gamble reduce its monetary value.
C) Total utility increases proportionally with every additional gamble played.
D) The value of a gamble diminishes as more and more people become interested in it.
Q:
Which of the following situations provides an example of the St. Petersburg paradox?
A) A bond offers high returns, but the public interest in it is low.
B) Employees are interested in increasing productivity, but their efforts are minimal.
C) Managerial productivity is hard to measure, but they get paid more than the others.
D) A company's profits have increased in a financial year, but it refuses to pay dividend.
Q:
Which of the following is an example of a situation in which the law of large numbers does not apply to the expected-value decision principle?
A) The investment decision is a once-in-a-lifetime opportunity.
B) Average return expected of a project is low.
C) The project requires a series of investments over the years.
D) Average return expected of a project is high.
Q:
Which of the following statements best describes the law of large numbers?
A) Large numbers of people should be involved if a gamble has to be successful.
B) Risk involved in a gamble is low when the money invested in it is large.
C) The mean return will get closer and closer to its expected value the more times a gamble is repeated.
D) Risk involved in a gamble is low when the prize is large.
Q:
You want to purchase bonds from a bank that offers high interest. However, you know that the bank's profitability has declined in recent times. Which of the following would you choose to help you make the best possible decision under these circumstances?
A) the dominance principle
B) the expected value principle
C) the elimination technique
D) the random choice decision making
Q:
The utility of a gamble equals ________.
A) the extent of uncertainty associated with utility of the gamble
B) the expected utility of its outcomes
C) the actual utility of its outcome or prize
D) the level of risk associated with the gamble