Q&A Hero

Q: Conciliation is viewed as more effective with our enemies, and coercion is viewed as more effective with ourselves.

Q: The United States is a direct communication culture, while Japan is predominantly an indirect communication culture.

Q: Bargaining, or negotiation, is a dispute resolution procedure in which the disputants retain control over the final decision, but a third party guides the process.

Q: Social loafing is the tendency for people to work less hard in a group context than when working alone.

Q: An important factor that can push people towards behaving more in line with their native cultural values is accountability pressure.

Q: Direct-indirect communication refers to the basic human motive concerning preservation of the self versus the collective.

Q: Economics is the unique character of a social group.

Q: Prototypes recognize that substantial variation within a culture is highly unlikely.

Q: A cultural framework is sensitive to homogeneity within cultural groups.

Q: Cultural intelligence is essential for effective negotiation.

Q: Briefly describe a rational strategy to choose among multiple job offers.

Q: How do comparables and benchmarks influence the process of negotiating a job offer?

Q: How should candidates deal with employers who attempt to gain information on their BATNAs?

Q: Write a brief note on BATNAs and their significance in job negotiations.

Q: According to the text, it is important to stop negotiating when ________. A) the other side is highly enthusiastic about negotiations B) a rival offer comes up with better terms C) the employer extends an exploding offer D) reciprocal concessions are becoming miniscule

Q: ________ are job offers that should be accepted by a prospective employee within a short period of time before they are withdrawn. A) Exploding offers B) Standing offers C) Unconditional offers D) Lateral offers

Q: Which of the following statements is true of comparables and benchmarks in job negotiation? A) Concerns for social comparisons are more important when people evaluate two options than when they evaluate a single option. B) People are more likely to accept a higher-paying job that pays other employees more than a lower-paying job that pays other employees the same amount. C) People do not want to be underpaid and would even give up more absolute money if this meant they were treated like others. D) Signing bonuses are found to have a significant positive effect on rates of acceptance of job offers among most MBA students.

Q: A negotiator's negotiating power is greatest ________. A) when responding to an employer's job offer B) while interviewing for a job C) after accepting a job offer from an employer D) while awaiting results of a job interview

Q: Penny is a fresh graduate from a business school in New Jersey. She has interviewed with Penarol and Estudes for a marketing job. Which of the following guidelines should she follow during the job negotiation process? A) She should discuss her BATNA with the employer and be honest about her current salary and wage package. B) She should focus and select subjective standards that are most favorable to her and steadfastly stand by them. C) She should not push the employer to negotiate for non-monetary perks such as flexible hours and bonuses. D) She should always assume an offer is negotiable and articulate her needs and interests.

Q: What is the advantage of a negotiator breaking down issues important to him into smaller subsets, prior to a negotiation? A) It provides greater opportunity for creative agreements. B) It enhances the attractiveness of the negotiator's BATNA. C) It helps the negotiator deal with any unplanned negotiation scenario. D) It helps the negotiator assess the employer's possible BATNAs.

Q: Which of the following is a component of protection benefits? A) stock/equity interest B) disability insurance C) bonuses D) sick and personal days off

Q: Which of the following is a component of paid leave? A) stock/equity interest B) 401k C) wellness programs D) training time

Q: Which of the following is a component of retirement benefits? A) stock/equity interest B) wellness programs C) 401k D) bonuses

Q: Which of the following is a component of compensation? A) pension B) 401k C) salary D) insurance

Q: Which of the following is classified as an additional living expense? A) student loan debt service B) life insurance C) income tax D) vacations

Q: Which of the following is classified as a necessary living expense? A) continuing education B) taxes C) recreation and entertainment D) charity

Q: It is important to stop negotiating if the other side is not responsive and reciprocal concessions grow smaller.

Q: Exploding offers are those that are extended to prospective job recruits such that they can choose to accept or reject once they have exercised their BATNA.

Q: A powerful negotiating strategy is to be vague about what it will take for you to agree when negotiating with the employer.

Q: Prospective job recruits should immediately agree once they have received a firm job offer and a salary figure from the employer.

Q: An analysis of how MBA students react to job offers revealed that job candidates strongly consider how responsive companies are to their questions and whether recruiters are cordial.

Q: People are more likely to accept a lower-paying job that pays other employees the same amount than a higher-paying job that pays other employees even more.

Q: You are in a much weaker position to negotiate before you have a job offer than after you are offered a position.

Q: If you have not yet been offered the job but sense that the employer wants to find out what you desire in a job offer, it is advisable to talk about salary or specific terms.

Q: Potential job recruits should indicate their BATNAs to employers in order to increase the effectiveness of their negotiations.

Q: Negotiators should always assume that a job offer is negotiable.

Q: The Mind and Heart of the Negotiator, 5e (Thompson) Appendix 4: Negotiating a Job Offer

Q: What types of mediation are most preferred by disputants?

Q: Compare and contrast the two major types of arbitration available to disputants.

Q: Which of the following skills is considered the most important in mediation? A) the ability to create a settlement and impose it on the concerned parties B) the ability to guarantee a settlement, either voluntary or involuntary, for the dispute C) the ability to expand the size of the bargaining zone by discovering interests D) the ability to maintain control over both the process and the outcome of the mediation

Q: Which of the following statements is true of managers resolving disputes through mediation? A) Managers are more preferable as arbitrators and mediators as they have no direct stake in the outcome. B) Managers are more likely to have technical expertise and background knowledge about the dispute. C) Managers tend to choose mediation techniques that maximize their own control over the mediation process. D) Managers are often considered unsuitable for mediation roles as they tend to be less outcome-oriented than other mediators.

Q: Jack and April are a couple who have decided to settle their divorce through the final-offer arbitration method. Each of them believes he or she has more than a 50 percent chance of having his or her proposal chosen by the arbitrator. What type of bias is evident here? A) hostile media bias B) overconfidence bias C) false attribution bias D) exaggeration of conflict bias

Q: Which of the following is an example of defensive behavior by a disputing party in a mediation process? A) insisting on holding mediation talks at a place of their choosing B) attempting to replace a mediator with one who is more likely to favor them C) bribing a mediator to act favorably toward them D) objecting to the counterparty's wishes to reschedule mediation talks

Q: Which of the following is an example of offensive behavior by a disputing party in a mediation process? A) blocking the counterparty's move to push through a proposal B) objecting to the counterparty's wishes to reschedule the mediation process C) insisting on holding mediation talks at a place of their choosing D) attempting to replace a mediator perceived as favoring the counterparty

Q: When disputants overestimate the extent to which third parties share their beliefs, it results in ________. A) overconfidence bias B) false attribution bias C) exaggeration of conflict bias D) hostile media bias

Q: News accounts of the 1982 Beirut Massacre were judged by partisans on both sides of the Arab-Israeli conflict to be partial to the other side. This is an example of ________. A) overconfidence bias B) false attribution bias C) hostile media bias D) exaggeration of conflict bias

Q: ________ is antipathy toward actions that harm one's own side to the other side's benefit. A) Offensive behavior B) Productive behavior C) Evasive behavior D) Defensive behavior

Q: Any attempted actions that benefit one's own side relative to the other side constitute ________. A) defensive behavior B) offensive behavior C) self-harming behavior D) overconfident behavior

Q: ________ occurs when disputing parties tend to magnify the differences between themselves and the opposing party or even third parties. A) False attribution bias B) Hostile media bias C) Exaggeration of conflict bias D) Overconfidence bias

Q: When disputants in conflict have asymmetrical conflict perceptions, ________. A) they are more likely to view the mediator as biased B) they are more likely to recommend mediation to their coworkers C) they tend to be more satisfied with the outcome of the mediation process D) they are more likely to arrive at a Pareto-optimal win-win agreement

Q: Which of the following is a key factor that determines whether disputants trust mediators? A) style of mediation adopted B) location of the mediation C) chemistry with the parties D) duration of the mediation process

Q: Mark Prescott, a retired attorney general, is invited by the boards of Simplex and Duplex, rival telecom companies, to mediate in a dispute over a patent between the two companies. Which of the following mediation styles should Mr. Prescott adopt if his objective is to increase the prospects for lasting tension reduction between the disputants? A) manipulation B) formulation C) facilitation D) conception

Q: Vera, Chuck and Dave are involved in an acrimonious dispute over the house and land that belonged to their grandparents. While Chuck wants to sell the property and divide the money equally, Vera wants to keep the house, but sell the surrounding land while Dave wants to keep both. The three opt for mediation and the mediator tells them that the value of the land is likely to increase steadily over the next few years. He suggests that Vera and Dave give Chuck one-third of the current value of the house and land while Vera keeps the house, paying Chuck another third of the value. Chuck keeps the land, paying Vera accordingly. The three reject the proposal. What functions was the mediator performing in this case? A) facilitation and formulation B) confrontation and manipulation C) manipulation and formulation D) formulation and confrontation

Q: Which of the following examples indicates the use of the formulation style by a mediator? A) During the 1972 crisis between North Yemen and South Yemen, the mediator, Colonel Moammar Qaddhafi of Libya, offered the delegation leaders of both sides nearly $50 million in annual aid if they did reach an agreement. B) During the 1992 crisis between Liberia and Sierra Leone, the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) successfully structured the bargaining process and proposed the outcome to which the parties ultimately agreed. C) During the 1990 crisis between India and Pakistan, the U.S. delegation to Pakistan communicated that Pakistan's military was inferior and that the United States did not intend to help Pakistan in a war. D) During the 1972 crisis between North Yemen and South Yemen, the mediator, Colonel Moammar Qaddhafi of Libya, threatened to hold captive the delegation leaders of both sides if they did not reach agreement.

Q: ________ occurs when the mediator uses his or her position and leverage to influence the bargaining process, such as by offering incentives or even threats. A) Formulation B) Manipulation C) Pacification D) Facilitation

Q: Which of the following examples indicates the use of the facilitation style by a mediator? A) During the 1972 crisis between North Yemen and South Yemen, the mediator, Colonel Moammar Qaddhafi of Libya, offered the delegation leaders of both sides nearly $50 million in annual aid if they did reach an agreement. B) During the 1992 crisis between Liberia and Sierra Leone, the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) successfully structured the bargaining process and proposed the outcome to which the parties ultimately agreed. C) During the 1990 crisis between India and Pakistan, the U.S. delegation to Pakistan communicated that Pakistan's military was inferior and that the United States did not intend to help Pakistan in a war. D) During the 1972 crisis between North Yemen and South Yemen, the mediator, Colonel Moammar Qaddhafi of Libya, threatened to hold captive the delegation leaders of both sides if they did not reach agreement.

Q: ________ is a style of third-party intervention that involves a substantive contribution by the third party to negotiations by conceiving and proposing new solutions. A) Facilitation B) Manipulation C) Imposition D) Formulation

Q: Which of the following third-party intervention styles is characterized by mediators who serve as a channel of communication among disputing parties? A) formulation B) manipulation C) facilitation D) imposition

Q: Which of the following is an example of an informal third-party role? A) the U.S. imposing ceasefire over the India-Pakistan conflict over Kashmir B) an employee intervening in a dispute between two colleagues C) a marriage counselor facilitating a discussion of a couple's marital problems D) the U.S. hosting a peace conference between rival factions in a civil war in an African nation

Q: Choose the pair of answers that best completes the following analogy: Mediators - ________; Arbitrators - ________. A) informal; formal B) intergroup; interpersonal C) formulators; facilitators D) process-oriented; content-oriented

Q: A mediator ________. A) has process control but not outcome control B) does not have outcome control and process control C) has outcome control but not process control D) has both outcome control and process control

Q: ________ refers to the ability of the third party to control the discussions, questions, and the communication. A) Process control B) Internal control C) Outcome control D) Optimal control

Q: ________ refers to the ability of the intervening third party to impose a final, binding settlement on the disputing parties. A) Process control B) Internal control C) Outcome control D) Optimal control

Q: The greatest benefit of arbitration-mediation is that ________. A) it encourages disputants to settle their differences themselves B) each side has an incentive to shape the arbitrator's final judgment by submitting an offer that is self-serving C) it produces a high settlement rate (typically 6080%), though settlement is not guaranteed D) the parties involved are motivated to submit a settlement that will be viewed as most fair in the eyes of the arbitrator

Q: Which of the following is true of mediation-arbitration? A) Mediation-arbitration consists of two phases that are conducted concurrently. B) At the end of the first phase, the third party makes a decision, which is not revealed to the parties. C) The first phase consists of an arbitration held by the third party. D) The same third party acts as both mediator and arbitrator during the mediation-arbitration process.

Q: Ben and Janie are getting a divorce and their friend Josh recommends that they divide their property using arbitration rather than costly litigation. Which of the following methods should Josh recommend to ensure that they arrive at the fairest possible settlement as quickly as with as little argument as possible? A) traditional arbitration B) final-offer arbitration C) arb-med D) med-arb

Q: Adrian is pursuing a constructive dismissal dispute with his former employers, Chiles Properties. They both agree to opt for a final-offer arbitration process to resolve their dispute. Which of the following best ensures that Adrian's interests are well served? A) Adrian should come up with a final settlement proposal that the arbitrator will consider to be fairer than that of Chiles Properties. B) Adrian should drive a hard bargain and insist on the best possible settlement terms in his final proposal to the arbitrator. C) Adrian should adopt settlement terms that are slightly more favorable to Chiles Properties than himself. D) Adrian should compose his settlement proposal such that it shows his former employers in an unfavorable light.

Q: Which of the following is a feature of traditional arbitration? A) Disputants submit final proposals to the arbitrator after the conclusion of the arbitration process. B) The final settlement is often a midpoint between the settlement terms submitted by either party. C) The arbitrator has to choose one of the two final settlements submitted by the disputants to impose. D) The arbitrator may choose between the settlements proposed by two parties, but cannot change them.

Q: The tendency for disputants to exaggerate their demands and reduce their level of concession making is known as ________. A) the propinquity effect B) concision C) prior restraint D) the chilling effect

Q: Which of the following is the greatest advantage of arbitration as a method of dispute resolution? A) Arbitration absolves the arbitrator of any blame if the results are not to the liking of either party. B) Arbitration does not require the parties to call witnesses and offer supporting evidence for their respective positions. C) Arbitration always produces a definite solution or settlement to any kind of dispute. D) Arbitration curbs the tendency of disputants to ask for very extreme settlements.

Q: Which of the following is an advantage of mediation as a dispute resolution method? A) Mediation always produces a settlement for any dispute. B) The parties involved can be assured of an impartial settlement. C) Each party can make concessions without appearing weak. D) The mediator must impose a settlement on the disputants.

Q: ________ is a procedure whereby a third party holds a hearing, at which time disputants state their position on the issues, call witnesses, and offer supporting evidence for their respective positions. A) Mediation B) Negotiation C) Expert determination D) Arbitration

Q: Ben and Janie are getting a divorce and their friend Josh recommends that they divide their property using mediation or arbitration techniques rather than costly litigation. But Janie is not very assertive and is afraid that her views may be overridden. Which of the following methods should Josh recommend to ensure that any settlement they make is purely voluntary? A) arbitration B) mediation C) arb-med D) med-arb

Q: ________ is a procedure whereby a third party assists disputants in achieving a voluntary settlement, but cannot impose a settlement on the disputants. A) Arbitration B) Mediation C) Litigation D) Adjudication

Q: In general, disputants tend to underestimate the extent to which their beliefs are shared by a third party.

Q: The exaggeration of conflict bias occurs when parties on both sides of a conflict view an even-handed media report to be partial to the other side.

Q: Mediators' interventions are most likely to propose fixed-pie solutions when the negotiators' relationship is positive and genuine.

Q: Third parties should not let the desperation of the negotiators narrow their own view of the possibilities for integrative agreement.

Q: A Pareto-optimal agreement is a win-win agreement.

Q: Formulation involves a substantive contribution to negotiations by conceiving and proposing new solutions.